A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit on his fifth day of mechanical ventilation. He originally presented with severe acute pancreatitis complicated by acute respiratory distress syndrome. Three days ago, he developed a temperature of (), increased purulent endotracheal secretions, and a new right lower lobe infiltrate on chest radiograph. He was diagnosed with ventilator-associated pneumonia and empirically started on intravenous vancomycin, cefepime, and tobramycin. Today, his temperature is (), and his oxygen requirements have decreased. The endotracheal aspirate culture from three days ago grows heavy growth () of *Klebsiella pneumoniae*. Susceptibility testing reveals resistance to ampicillin, but susceptibility to ceftriaxone, cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, and meropenem. Blood cultures are negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's antimicrobial management?
- Discontinue vancomycin and tobramycin; change cefepime to intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BDiscontinue vancomycin and tobramycin; continue intravenous cefepime
- CDiscontinue vancomycin and tobramycin; change cefepime to intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DDiscontinue vancomycin and tobramycin; change cefepime to intravenous meropenem
- EContinue intravenous vancomycin, cefepime, and tobramycin without modifications