A -year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on hospital day . He originally presented with a -day history of fever, right flank pain, and dysuria. Medical history is significant for nephrolithiasis, for which he underwent a cystoscopy with stent placement week ago.
On admission, temperature was (), blood pressure was , and pulse was . Laboratory studies showed a leukocyte count of . He was empirically started on intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam.
Today (hospital day ), his temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Blood and urine cultures obtained on admission both grow *Enterobacter cloacae*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals the following:
* Ampicillin: Resistant
* Cefazolin: Resistant
* Ceftriaxone: Susceptible
* Cefepime: Susceptible
* Piperacillin-tazobactam: Susceptible
* Meropenem: Susceptible
Based on these results, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the patient's antimicrobial management?
- ATransition to intravenous ceftriaxone
- Transition to intravenous cefepimeAnswer
- CTransition to intravenous meropenem
- DContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- EAdd intravenous gentamicin to the current regimen