A 71-year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day 4 following an open sigmoid colectomy for recurrent diverticulitis. Over the last several hours, he has developed worsening shortness of breath and a cough productive of pink, frothy sputum. His medical history is significant for ischemic cardiomyopathy with an ejection fraction of and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Since the operation, he has been receiving continuous normal saline at a rate of and scheduled intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam.
Temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of on room air. Physical examination reveals elevated jugular venous pressure, an gallop, and coarse crackles over the bilateral lower and mid lung fields. Expiratory wheezing is absent. The surgical incision is clean, dry, and intact with no surrounding erythema or induration. The abdomen is soft, mildly tender near the incision, but not distended.
Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . A portable chest radiograph reveals cardiomegaly, bilateral fluffy alveolar opacities, and small bilateral pleural effusions.
Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in management? (Select 2)
- Administer intravenous furosemideAnswer
- Discontinue the continuous intravenous saline infusionAnswer
- CAdminister intravenous methylprednisolone and nebulized ipratropium-albuterol
- DEscalate antimicrobial therapy to intravenous vancomycin and meropenem
- EObtain a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast