A 16-year-old girl is evaluated in the clinic for absence of menarche. She reports no cyclic pelvic or abdominal pain. She has experienced normal growth spurts, and her 14-year-old sister began menstruating a year ago. She takes no medications and has no significant past medical history. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, height is at the 65th percentile and weight is at the 60th percentile. Breast development is Tanner stage 4, and pubic and axillary hair are Tanner stage 4. Pelvic examination reveals normal female external genitalia and a shortened, 3-cm blind-ending vaginal pouch. Transabdominal ultrasonography reveals the absence of a uterus and cervix, but symmetric, morphologically normal ovaries are visualized. Laboratory evaluation shows a serum testosterone concentration of 40 ng/dL (reference range for females: 15-70 ng/dL). Karyotype analysis reveals a 46,XX chromosomal pattern. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Renal ultrasonographyAnswer
- BBilateral gonadectomy
- CMeasurement of serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone
- DDual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scan
- EMagnetic resonance imaging of the brain