A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing sudden-onset, severe epigastric and lower chest pain for the past 90 minutes. He describes the pain as a "heavy weight" and reports associated nausea and profuse sweating. His medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, peripheral arterial disease, and a 40-pack-year smoking history. Current medications include metformin and atorvastatin. On arrival, his temperature is 36.8 °C (98.2 °F), blood pressure is 82/50 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Pulse oximetry is 97% on room air. Physical examination reveals clear lungs to auscultation bilaterally. Jugular venous pulsations are visible 10 cm above the sternal angle while the patient is seated at a 45-degree angle. Cardiac auscultation reveals a regular rhythm without murmurs or gallops. The extremities are cool and clammy. An electrocardiogram reveals sinus tachycardia with 3-mm ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF, as well as 2-mm ST-segment depressions in leads I and aVL. The patient is administered chewable aspirin and ticagrelor. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step to stabilize this patient's hemodynamics?
- Administration of an isotonic saline bolusAnswer
- BAdministration of sublingual nitroglycerin
- CAdministration of intravenous furosemide
- DAdministration of intravenous metoprolol
- EInitiation of an intravenous dobutamine infusion