An outpatient evaluation is requested for a 41-year-old woman experiencing abnormal uterine bleeding. Over the last 10 months, her menstrual cycles have become highly irregular, occurring at intervals ranging from 20 to 60 days. The periods are characterized by a heavy flow that frequently requires changing a superabsorbent pad every hour during the first two days of menstruation. Her past medical history includes essential hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her body mass index is 39 kg/m2. She has never been pregnant. Vital signs are normal. Speculum examination shows a normal-appearing cervix with a moderate amount of dark blood in the vaginal vault. Bimanual examination reveals a mobile, normal-sized uterus and no adnexal masses. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin testing is negative. Transvaginal ultrasonography shows a homogeneously thickened endometrium measuring 14 mm without focal lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Endometrial biopsyAnswer
- BHysteroscopy with dilation and curettage
- CInsertion of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device
- DPrescription of combined oral contraceptive pills
- ERepeat transvaginal ultrasound in 3 months