A 3-year-old boy is brought to the pediatric neurology clinic by his mother and 14-year-old sister for a routine follow-up of his seizure disorder. He has a history of infantile spasms that have now evolved into focal impaired awareness seizures. Examination of the boy reveals erythematous, papular facial lesions clustered around the nose and a thickened, elevated plaque on his lumbosacral region.
During the developmental assessment, the mother expresses concern about the boy's progress. He can walk up steps with assistance and build a tower of six blocks, but he is unable to copy a cross or hop on one foot.
During the visit, the 14-year-old sister asks to speak to the physician privately. She requests a prescription for oral contraceptives, explicitly asking that her mother not be informed. Additionally, the sister complains of a mild cough, rhinorrhea, and sore throat that began 48 hours ago; her physical exam is consistent with an uncomplicated viral upper respiratory infection, yet she asks for a strong antibiotic to "knock it out quickly."
Which of the following statements regarding the management and clinical evaluation of these patients are correct? (Select all that apply)
- The 3-year-old boy's underlying neurocutaneous disorder warrants routine surveillance with abdominal ultrasonography to detect angiomyolipomas.Answer
- The 3-year-old boy is at a significantly increased risk for developing subependymal giant cell astrocytomas, which can cause obstructive hydrocephalus.Answer
- CThe 3-year-old boy exhibits a marked delay in fine motor and gross motor development, as copying a cross and hopping on one foot are milestones expected by 36 months of age.
- DThe physician should prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as amoxicillin-clavulanate, for the 14-year-old sister to prevent secondary bacterial complications.
- EThe physician must refuse the 14-year-old sister's request for confidential contraception and notify the mother, as parental consent is universally required for minors.