A 64-year-old man is transported to the emergency department by ambulance following a sudden collapse at his residence. His spouse notes that prior to collapsing, he described an explosive pain in the back of his head, followed by severe vertigo, intractable emesis, and an inability to stand. His past medical history is significant for long-standing hypertension and medication nonadherence. On presentation, his blood pressure is 210/115 mm Hg, heart rate is 88/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. He is immediately started on a continuous intravenous nicardipine infusion. Neurologic examination reveals a lethargic patient who arouses only to loud voice. He exhibits prominent left-sided finger-to-nose ataxia and horizontal nystagmus. A noncontrast CT scan of the head demonstrates a 4.2-cm hyperdense collection in the left cerebellar hemisphere with complete effacement of the fourth ventricle and marked enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient?
- Suboccipital craniectomy and hematoma evacuationAnswer
- BExternal ventricular drain placement alone
- CHyperosmolar therapy with serial neurologic examinations
- DControlled cerebrospinal fluid drainage via lumbar puncture
- EDiagnostic cerebral angiography with endovascular coiling