A 22-year-old female is evaluated in the emergency department for three days of worsening right-sided abdominal pain and lower pelvic discomfort. The abdominal pain is sharp, exacerbated by deep inspiration, and accompanied by nausea. She has a past medical history of asthma and a severe allergic reaction to amoxicillin during childhood that resulted in anaphylaxis and endotracheal intubation. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, and pulse is 114/min. Physical examination reveals right upper quadrant tenderness with a palpable friction rub over the anterior costal margin, as well as profound bilateral lower abdominal tenderness. Pelvic examination demonstrates a friable cervix with mucopurulent discharge at the cervical os and exquisite pain on cervical motion. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 16,800/mm³. Liver aminotransferases and alkaline phosphatase levels are within normal limits. A right upper quadrant ultrasound demonstrates no biliary abnormalities and no pericholecystic fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic management for this patient?
- Intravenous clindamycin and intravenous gentamicinAnswer
- BIntramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole
- CIntravenous cefoxitin and intravenous doxycycline
- DOral levofloxacin and oral metronidazole
- EIntravenous ampicillin-sulbactam and intravenous doxycycline