A -year-old woman is evaluated on the medical ward on hospital day for acute pyelonephritis. On admission, she reported a -day history of high fever, dysuria, and severe right-sided back pain. She works as a nurse and has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. Due to local antibiogram data showing high rates of fluoroquinolone resistance and her recent healthcare exposure, she was started empirically on intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam. The patient has improved significantly; she has been afebrile for hours, her flank pain is minimal, and she is tolerating oral intake perfectly. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Final urine culture results from admission demonstrate colony-forming units/mL of *Klebsiella pneumoniae*. Susceptibility testing shows the isolate is resistant to ampicillin, but sensitive to ceftriaxone, cefazolin, ciprofloxacin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Transition to oral ciprofloxacinAnswer
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CSwitch to intravenous ceftriaxone
- DTransition to oral nitrofurantoin
- ETransition to oral amoxicillin