A 25-year-old primigravida at 14 weeks gestation is evaluated in the emergency department for sudden-onset palpitations, chest tightness, trembling, and a feeling of impending doom that awoke her from sleep. The episode peaked within 10 minutes and has now resolved. She has had three similar unexpected episodes over the past month. She now refuses to leave her house unless accompanied by her husband, fearing she will have an attack in public. Medical history is notable for a hospitalization at age 19 for a manic episode with psychotic features; she had been stable on lithium but discontinued it 6 months prior to conception.
Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 18/min. Pulse oximetry is 99% on room air. She mentions a chronic, mild sensation of breathlessness over the last few weeks. Physical examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory results:
- TSH: 0.2 IU/mL (normal: 0.4-4.0 IU/mL)
- Free T : 1.3 ng/dL (normal: 0.8-1.8 ng/dL)
Arterial blood gas analysis on room air:
- pH: 7.45
- PaCO : 30 mm Hg
- PaO : 102 mm Hg
The patient's husband is distressed by her avoidance behaviors and demands she be given an intravenous sedative immediately. However, the patient explicitly declines any pharmacotherapy due to fear of teratogenicity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapyAnswer
- BInitiate citalopram therapy
- CAdminister involuntary intravenous lorazepam
- DInitiate methimazole therapy
- EOrder computed tomography pulmonary angiography