A -year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to severe shortness of breath that awoke her from sleep hours ago. She has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), essential hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Her home medications include a daily tiotropium inhaler and amlodipine. She reports a dry cough but denies fever, chills, or changes in sputum production. She appears in severe respiratory distress, sitting upright and using accessory muscles of respiration. Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure mm Hg, pulse /min, and respirations /min. Pulse oximetry is on room air. Jugular venous pressure is cm . Lung auscultation demonstrates diffuse expiratory wheezes and a prolonged expiratory phase; no crackles are appreciated. Cardiac examination reveals a regular tachycardia with a faint, high-frequency presystolic sound at the apex. There is no peripheral edema. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air reveals a pH of , of mm Hg, of mm Hg, and of mEq/L. A bedside chest radiograph shows hyperinflated lungs, prominent upper lobe vessels, and peribronchial cuffing, without distinct alveolar infiltrates. Electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia and voltage criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation, intravenous furosemide, and sublingual nitroglycerinAnswer
- BInhaled albuterol, ipratropium, and systemic glucocorticoids
- CIntravenous sodium bicarbonate and high-flow nasal cannula oxygen
- DIntravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- EImmediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation