A 58-year-old woman is hospitalized for the treatment of infective endocarditis. She initially presented with a 3-week history of low-grade fever, fatigue, and a new heart murmur. Her history is notable for a dental extraction one month prior. Transesophageal echocardiography on admission revealed a 7-mm vegetation on the mitral valve leaflet. Three sets of blood cultures grew *Streptococcus sanguinis* with a penicillin minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of 0.05 mcg/mL. She was started on a planned 2-week synergistic regimen of intravenous aqueous penicillin G and intravenous gentamicin. On day 5 of hospitalization, the patient reports feeling clinically improved and has been afebrile for 48 hours. However, laboratory studies show her serum creatinine has increased from a baseline of 0.8 mg/dL to 2.1 mg/dL. Her urine output has mildly decreased over the past 24 hours. Which of the following is the most appropriate modification to her antimicrobial regimen?
- Discontinue gentamicin and continue intravenous penicillin G for a total 4-week courseAnswer
- BDiscontinue both antibiotics and initiate intravenous vancomycin for a total 4-week course
- CDecrease the dose of gentamicin and continue both antibiotics for a total 2-week course
- DDiscontinue penicillin G and continue intravenous gentamicin for a total 2-week course
- EDiscontinue both antibiotics and initiate oral amoxicillin for a total 4-week course