A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 40 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit. She was admitted earlier today for induction of labor due to oligohydramnios. The patient is currently receiving a continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion. Her cervix is 6 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal presenting part is at 0 station. Maternal temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Uterine contractions are occurring every 3 minutes. Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of 140/min with moderate variability. Over the past 20 minutes, there are recurrent, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate; the nadir of each decrease consistently occurs after the peak of the associated uterine contraction, with a slow return to baseline. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AAdminister intravenous terbutaline
- BPerform an amnioinfusion
- Discontinue the oxytocin infusion and reposition the patient laterallyAnswer
- DProceed to immediate cesarean delivery
- EReassure the patient as this pattern represents physiologic fetal head compression