A 59-year-old woman is evaluated in the gynecology clinic for a persistent, clear vaginal discharge over the past three months. She has not experienced any vaginal bleeding. Menopause occurred 8 years ago. Her past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and a body mass index of 37 kg/m². Current medications include metformin and lisinopril. On speculum examination, the vaginal mucosa appears pale and thin, and the cervix has no visible lesions or bleeding. Bimanual examination reveals a small, mobile uterus and no adnexal masses. A cervical cytology specimen is collected, which subsequently returns positive for atypical glandular cells. To further investigate, the physician performs a transvaginal ultrasound in the office, which demonstrates normal-sized ovaries and an endometrial stripe measuring 3 mm in thickness. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the patient's management?
- Colposcopy with endocervical curettage and endometrial biopsyAnswer
- BColposcopy with endocervical curettage only
- CEndometrial biopsy only
- DDiagnostic excisional procedure of the cervix
- ERepeat cervical cytology and human papillomavirus testing in 6 months