During morning rounds on the general medical ward, a physician evaluates a -year-old man undergoing treatment for severe community-acquired pneumonia. The patient was admitted days ago with acute respiratory distress, fever, and a dense right lower lobe consolidation on chest radiography. Due to a history of a recent hospitalization weeks prior, he was started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam.
The patient's condition has markedly improved over the past hours. He is now breathing comfortably on room air, and his cough is producing only minimal clear sputum. His temperature is C ( F), blood pressure is mmHg, pulse is /min, and respirations are /min. Blood cultures drawn at the time of admission are now positive for *Streptococcus pneumoniae* in two out of two bottles. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing demonstrates that the isolate is sensitive to penicillin, amoxicillin, ceftriaxone, and linezolid, but resistant to azithromycin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's pharmacotherapy?
- Discontinue the current regimen and initiate oral amoxicillinAnswer
- BMaintain intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam for a total of days
- CDiscontinue vancomycin but continue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DTransition the patient to oral linezolid
- ETransition the patient to oral amoxicillin-clavulanate