A 65-year-old woman is hospitalized due to a 2-day history of high fever, right-sided flank pain, and altered mental status. She has a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent urinary tract infections. On admission, her temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination is notable for severe right costovertebral angle tenderness. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 18,500/mm³. Urinalysis is positive for leukocyte esterase, nitrites, and numerous leukocytes. Blood and urine cultures are obtained, and the patient is started on empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam. Over the next 48 hours, her fever resolves, and her hemodynamics normalize.
Preliminary results from both blood and urine cultures grow *Enterobacter cloacae*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals the isolate is susceptible to ceftriaxone, cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, meropenem, and gentamicin. It is resistant to ciprofloxacin and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antimicrobial therapy?
- ASwitch to intravenous ceftriaxone
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- Switch to intravenous cefepimeAnswer
- DSwitch to intravenous meropenem
- EAdd intravenous gentamicin to the current regimen