An individual with a well-documented history of bipolar I disorder is evaluated in the emergency department for altered mental status. According to family members, the patient has become progressively lethargic, confused, and unsteady on their feet over the past 48 hours. The patient has been taking divalproex sodium for several years with excellent mood control. Two weeks ago, a neurologist initiated topiramate for migraine prophylaxis. On examination, the patient is disoriented to time and place. When asked to hold their arms outstretched with wrists extended, a bilateral, non-rhythmic, flapping tremor is observed. Laboratory studies, including a complete blood count, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, and total bilirubin, are all strictly within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current presentation?
- Accumulation of ammonia due to urea cycle interferenceAnswer
- BHepatocellular necrosis leading to hepatic encephalopathy
- CSynergistic enhancement of central GABAergic neurotransmission
- DCytochrome P450-mediated toxic accumulation of divalproex
- ESerotonergic overstimulation of the central nervous system