A 7-year-old boy is brought to the pediatric orthopedics clinic by his parents due to a persistent limp favoring his left leg. The parents report that the limping began approximately 5 weeks ago and is particularly noticeable after he plays outside. He occasionally complains of a dull ache in his left anterior thigh, but he denies any knee or back pain. There is no history of recent trauma, falls, or upper respiratory tract infections. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 98/62 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. On physical examination, the patient has an antalgic gait. The left hip demonstrates restricted internal rotation and limited abduction compared to the right hip. The circumference of the left thigh is 2 cm smaller than that of the right thigh. Laboratory evaluation reveals a leukocyte count of 6,800/mm³, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 9 mm/hr, and a C-reactive protein level of 0.3 mg/dL. Anteroposterior and frog-leg lateral radiographs of the pelvis show completely normal bony architecture, symmetric joint spaces, and no epiphyseal flattening. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup or management of this patient?
- Magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvisAnswer
- BAdministration of oral ibuprofen and outpatient observation
- CUltrasound-guided aspiration of the left hip joint
- DIntravenous administration of ceftriaxone and vancomycin
- ESerum testing for rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies