A 70-year-old multiparous woman undergoes a right-sided sacrospinous ligament suspension for symptomatic vaginal vault prolapse following a hysterectomy performed 15 years ago. Two hours after arriving in the post-anesthesia care unit, she complains of excruciating, sharp, burning pain in her right gluteal region that radiates to the right perineum and labia majora. She is highly distressed and rates the pain as on a -point scale despite receiving adequate doses of intravenous morphine. Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , and heart rate of . Neurological examination reveals normal motor strength in her lower extremities bilaterally, with intact patellar and Achilles reflexes. However, there is marked hyperalgesia over the right perianal and perineal area. The surgical site shows no active vaginal bleeding, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- Reexploration of the surgical site and suture removalAnswer
- CObservation and initiation of oral gabapentin therapy
- DMeasurement of post-void residual bladder volume
- EAdministration of intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics