A healthy -year-old woman, who is pregnant for the first time, visits her obstetrician for a scheduled mid-pregnancy evaluation at weeks of gestation. Her pregnancy has progressed normally without any complications, and her blood group is O positive. She states that she is feeling the baby move frequently. Her only new symptom is mild swelling in both ankles that appears in the late afternoon and resolves after resting overnight.
On physical assessment, her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Cardiovascular auscultation reveals a soft, grade 1/6 systolic ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border. The abdomen is non-tender, and the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus measures . Trace pitting edema is noted symmetrically on the lower legs.
A panel of screening tests is performed with the following results:
Hemoglobin:
Mean corpuscular volume:
Leukocyte count:
Platelet count:
1-hour 50-g oral glucose challenge test:
Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate action?
- Proceed with standard scheduled prenatal careAnswer
- BPrescribe daily therapeutic oral iron
- CSchedule a 3-hour 100-g glucose tolerance test
- DPerform a resting 12-lead electrocardiogram
- EObtain bilateral lower extremity venous ultrasonography