A -year-old man comes to the emergency department due to sudden-onset, severe left-sided flank pain that radiates to his left groin. He has no significant past medical history. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals left costovertebral angle tenderness but a soft, non-tender abdomen. Laboratory studies show a normal leukocyte count and urinalysis is positive for microscopic hematuria but negative for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. A noncontrast CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a stone in the left distal ureter with mild hydroureter. His pain improves significantly after receiving intravenous ketorolac. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discharge home with tamsulosin and encourage oral fluid intakeAnswer
- BAdministration of intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics
- CExtracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
- DPlacement of a percutaneous nephrostomy tube
- EUreteroscopic stone extraction