A 32-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the clinic reporting severe vulvovaginal burning and irritation that has persisted for the past 3 weeks. She has been treated with two separate courses of oral fluconazole and a 7-day course of over-the-counter topical miconazole with no relief. Her last hemoglobin A1c was 8.7%. Pelvic examination reveals significant vulvovaginal erythema and edema with a few superficial excoriations. There is a moderate amount of thin, whitish vaginal discharge. The vaginal pH is 4.3. Microscopic evaluation of the discharge with saline and 10% potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparations reveals numerous inflammatory cells and small budding yeasts, but no pseudohyphae are identified. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Obtain a vaginal fungal culture and initiate treatment with intravaginal boric acidAnswer
- BInitiate a 14-day induction course of daily oral fluconazole followed by a weekly maintenance dose
- CPerform a vulvar punch biopsy to evaluate for a malignant or inflammatory dermatosis
- DPrescribe a 7-day course of oral metronidazole
- EAdvise the use of over-the-counter 1% hydrocortisone cream and sitz baths