A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for severe left flank pain, high fever, and confusion. His medical history is significant for permanent atrial fibrillation, for which he takes apixaban. Two days ago, he visited an urgent care clinic for dysuria; a urine culture sent at that time is now growing *Escherichia coli* that is susceptible to ceftriaxone and resistant to ciprofloxacin.
On arrival, his temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals exquisite left costovertebral angle tenderness.
Laboratory studies show:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | |
| Hemoglobin | |
| Platelet count | |
| Creatinine | (baseline ) |
| INR |
A bedside ultrasound demonstrates severe left hydroureteronephrosis but cannot identify the level of obstruction. The patient receives a intravenous fluid bolus and is started on intravenous ceftriaxone. Thirty minutes later, his blood pressure remains and he is increasingly lethargic. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Cystoscopy with retrograde ureteral stent placementAnswer
- BImage-guided percutaneous nephrostomy
- CAddition of intravenous vancomycin and switch to meropenem
- DTransport to radiology for a non-contrast CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- EContinued intravenous fluid resuscitation and observation