A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain and difficulty breathing for the past 48 hours. He has a known history of homozygous sickle cell disease (HbSS). Vital signs show a temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F), blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg, heart rate of 128/min, and respiratory rate of 34/min. Pulse oximetry is 83% while receiving high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. Physical examination reveals severe respiratory distress, scleral icterus, and bilateral dullness to percussion with widespread crackles. A portable chest radiograph displays new diffuse, multilobar alveolar infiltrates.
Laboratory analysis reveals the following:
| Laboratory Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | 6.9 g/dL (baseline 8.5 g/dL) |
| Leukocytes | 24,000/mm³ |
| Platelets | 380,000/mm³ |
| Reticulocytes | 15% |
The patient has been started on intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics (ceftriaxone and azithromycin), and adequate pain management. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdminister intravenous furosemide
- BCT angiography of the chest
- Exchange blood transfusionAnswer
- DSimple red blood cell transfusion
- ESwitch to intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam