An asymptomatic -year-old female presents to the clinic to discuss her recent imaging and biopsy results. During a routine health maintenance visit last month, a bilateral mammogram was ordered which demonstrated a highly suspicious -cm stellate density with clustered, fine linear branching calcifications in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast (BI-RADS ). A subsequent image-guided stereotactic core needle biopsy of the lesion was performed. The histopathology report describes classic lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) without evidence of invasive malignancy, atypical ductal hyperplasia, or ductal carcinoma in situ. The patient has a history of hypertension and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Menopause occurred at age . She currently takes lisinopril. Vital signs are within normal limits. Breast examination reveals symmetrical breasts with no skin dimpling, nipple retraction, or palpable masses. There is no cervical, supraclavicular, or axillary adenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next action for this patient?
- Image-guided diagnostic surgical excision of the left breast lesionAnswer
- BAdministration of an estrogen antagonist and enhanced surveillance
- CLeft-sided simple mastectomy with sentinel node evaluation
- DReturn to the clinic in 6 months for a unilateral diagnostic mammogram
- EReassurance that the findings are non-malignant and resumption of annual screening