A -year-old primigravida at weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction of labor due to postterm pregnancy. A continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion is initiated. Her cervix is dilated and effaced. Uterine contractions are occurring every to minutes. The fetal heart rate baseline is with moderate variability. Over the past minutes, the fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates recurrent, symmetric decreases in the heart rate that begin after the peak of each contraction, reach their nadir after the contraction ends, and then gradually return to baseline. Maternal vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , and heart rate . Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and hemoglobin of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinuation of oxytocin infusion and maternal repositioningAnswer
- BImmediate cesarean delivery
- CProphylactic amnioinfusion
- DSubcutaneous terbutaline administration
- EIntravenous administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics