A -year-old man is evaluated for persistent fever. He was admitted days ago for acute myeloid leukemia induction chemotherapy, which resulted in profound bone marrow suppression. Ten days ago, his absolute neutrophil count dropped to and he developed a fever of (). Blood cultures were drawn, and empiric intravenous cefepime was initiated. He remained febrile, and days ago, intravenous vancomycin was added.
Today, his temperature is (). He reports new-onset right-sided pleuritic chest pain. His absolute neutrophil count remains at . Repeated blood cultures drawn prior to the initiation of antibiotics and days ago have shown no growth. A non-contrast computed tomography scan of the chest reveals a dense macronodule surrounded by a halo of ground-glass attenuation in the right upper lobe. Serum galactomannan testing is strongly positive, and intravenous voriconazole is initiated.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step regarding this patient's antibacterial regimen?
- Continue cefepime and discontinue vancomycinAnswer
- BDiscontinue both cefepime and vancomycin
- CContinue both cefepime and vancomycin
- DSwitch cefepime to meropenem and continue vancomycin
- EContinue vancomycin and discontinue cefepime