Match each clinical presentation of an immunocompromised patient with the most appropriate targeted pharmacotherapy.
- A 32-year-old patient with untreated HIV presents with new-onset seizures; brain MRI reveals multiple ring-enhancing lesions in the basal ganglia.Oral pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and leucovorin
- A 45-year-old patient with untreated HIV presents with subacute headache, fever, and a positive serum cryptococcal antigen test.Intravenous liposomal amphotericin B and flucytosine
- A 28-year-old patient with untreated HIV presents with floaters, blurred vision, and yellow-white retinal lesions with associated hemorrhage on funduscopy.Oral valganciclovir
- A 39-year-old patient with untreated HIV presents with progressive dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and severe resting hypoxemia (PaO2 60 mmHg); chest imaging shows bilateral ground-glass opacities.Intravenous trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and adjunctive corticosteroids
Answer
The correct pairings match Toxoplasmosis with pyrimethamine/sulfadiazine/leucovorin, Cryptococcal meningitis with amphotericin B/flucytosine, CMV retinitis with valganciclovir, and severe Pneumocystis pneumonia with TMP-SMX/corticosteroids.
Each targeted pharmacotherapy directly addresses the specific pathogen responsible for the classic opportunistic infection presentations in patients with advanced HIV, adhering to standard induction and primary treatment guidelines.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Pharmacotherapy for HIV-associated opportunistic infections