A 29-year-old primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit during the active phase of labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her cervix is 6 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and the fetal head is at -1 station. Uterine contractions are occurring every 3 to 4 minutes and are of moderate intensity. Thirty minutes after admission, the patient requests and receives continuous epidural anesthesia for pain relief.
Fifteen minutes later, the patient reports feeling lightheaded and nauseated. Her blood pressure is 82/45 mm Hg, and her heart rate is 105/min. The continuous fetal heart rate monitoring previously showed a baseline of 145/min with moderate variability and positive accelerations. The tracing now reveals minimal variability and gradual, symmetric decreases in the fetal heart rate from the baseline to a nadir of 125/min. The onset, nadir, and recovery of the decelerations occur after the beginning, peak, and end of the uterine contractions, respectively. These decelerations occur with more than 50% of contractions.
The nurse immediately turns the patient onto her left side and administers a bolus of intravenous lactated Ringer solution. Ten minutes later, the patient's blood pressure remains 86/48 mm Hg, and the fetal heart rate tracing is unchanged.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer ephedrine intravenouslyAnswer
- BAdminister terbutaline subcutaneously
- CInitiate an amnioinfusion
- DProceed with a cesarean delivery
- EAttempt a vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery