Match each clinical presentation with its most appropriate first-line antimicrobial therapy.
- A 24-year-old man presents with a solitary, painless, indurated ulcer on his glans penis. Dark-field microscopy of the exudate shows motile spirochetes.Intramuscular benzathine penicillin G
- A 30-year-old woman presents with a slowly expanding, flat, erythematous rash with central clearing on her thigh, one week after a camping trip.Oral doxycycline
- A 21-year-old man presents with dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. Gram stain reveals neutrophils and intracellular Gram-negative diplococci.Intramuscular ceftriaxone
- A 45-year-old man presents with a painful, fluctuant skin abscess on his lower leg. He requires oral antibiotics covering community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA).Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Answer
Primary syphilis matches with benzathine penicillin G; early Lyme disease matches with doxycycline; gonococcal urethritis matches with ceftriaxone; and CA-MRSA skin infection matches with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
Each clinical scenario presents a classic presentation of a common outpatient infection. The pairings reflect the standard-of-care first-line antimicrobial therapies for these specific pathogens, adhering to current clinical guidelines and antibiotic stewardship principles.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Empiric and targeted antimicrobial therapy for common outpatient infectious diseases.
Estimated Time:1m 30s