A 32-year-old G2P1 woman at 35 weeks gestation is brought to the obstetric triage unit after experiencing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina, followed immediately by moderate, painless vaginal bleeding. She recently immigrated and has not received regular prenatal care, missing her second-trimester anatomy ultrasound. Her temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure is 112/72 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 16/min. Speculum examination reveals clear fluid mixed with bright red blood pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix. The fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a continuous, smooth, undulating baseline of 140/min with a wave frequency of 4 cycles per minute, absent short-term variability, and no accelerations or true decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ATransvaginal ultrasonography
- BCorticosteroid administration and continuous monitoring
- CAmnioinfusion via intrauterine pressure catheter
- Emergent cesarean deliveryAnswer
- EKleihauer-Betke testing and routine observation