A -year-old woman is evaluated on hospital day for ongoing medication management. She was initially admitted for a severe diabetic foot infection complicated by septic shock. On admission, her blood pressure was , which responded to aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation. She was empirically started on broad-spectrum intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam. Due to initial profound lethargy and confusion in the emergency department, a comprehensive laboratory workup, including thyroid function tests, was obtained.
Today, the patient is alert, afebrile, and hemodynamically stable. Blood cultures and deep wound cultures from admission both exclusively grow methicillin-susceptible *Staphylococcus aureus* (MSSA). Laboratory results from the admission draw are now available and shown below:
| Laboratory Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| TSH | ||
| Free T4 | ||
| Total T3 |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ADiscontinue vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam, begin intravenous cefazolin, and initiate levothyroxine supplementation
- BDiscontinue vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam, begin intravenous cefazolin, and obtain an MRI of the pituitary gland
- CContinue vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam, and provide no thyroid-specific intervention
- Discontinue vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam, begin intravenous cefazolin, and provide no thyroid-specific interventionAnswer
- EDiscontinue vancomycin, continue piperacillin-tazobactam, and initiate levothyroxine supplementation