A 58-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on the third day of admission for a catheter-related bloodstream infection. He initially presented to the emergency department with fever, chills, and hypotension during his outpatient hemodialysis session. At admission, blood cultures were drawn, his tunneled hemodialysis catheter was removed, and he was started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and cefepime. His past medical history is notable for end-stage renal disease, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His medical record indicates an allergy to amoxicillin, which caused a diffuse, non-pruritic maculopapular rash 15 years ago. Today, the patient is afebrile and hemodynamically stable. The blood cultures drawn at admission are growing *Staphylococcus aureus*.
Susceptibility testing results are as follows:
| Antimicrobial | Interpretation |
|---|---|
| Oxacillin | Susceptible |
| Cefazolin | Susceptible |
| Cefepime | Susceptible |
| Vancomycin | Susceptible |
| Penicillin | Resistant |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antibiotic management?
- Discontinue vancomycin and cefepime; start intravenous cefazolinAnswer
- BDiscontinue cefepime and continue intravenous vancomycin
- CDiscontinue vancomycin and continue intravenous cefepime
- DDiscontinue vancomycin and cefepime; start intravenous daptomycin
- EDiscontinue vancomycin and cefepime; start intravenous ceftaroline