A 61-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and ischemic cardiomyopathy is evaluated in the intensive care unit. He was intubated 6 days ago for acute respiratory failure. Three days ago, he developed a temperature of 38.9°C (102.0°F), increased purulent endotracheal secretions, and a new right lower lobe consolidation on his chest radiograph. A diagnosis of ventilator-associated pneumonia was made, and empiric therapy with intravenous vancomycin, cefepime, and amikacin was initiated. Today, his temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), and his oxygenation has improved. Endotracheal aspirate cultures obtained prior to antibiotic initiation grow Klebsiella pneumoniae. Susceptibility testing shows the isolate is resistant to ampicillin but susceptible to ceftriaxone, cefepime, and meropenem. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue vancomycin and amikacin, and transition to intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BContinue the current regimen of intravenous vancomycin, cefepime, and amikacin
- CDiscontinue vancomycin and amikacin, and transition to intravenous meropenem
- DDiscontinue antibiotics and initiate intravenous furosemide and systemic corticosteroids
- EObtain an arterial blood gas to apply Winter's formula for ventilator titration