A 31-year-old nulliparous patient at 41 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction of labor due to postterm pregnancy. She is currently receiving an intravenous oxytocin infusion. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, and pulse is 88/min. Cervical examination reveals 5 cm dilation, 80% effacement, and -1 station. The external fetal monitor displays a baseline heart rate of 135/min with moderate variability. Over the past 40 minutes, the tracing reveals recurrent, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that begin consistently after the peak of each uterine contraction and do not return to baseline until the contraction has ended. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the intravenous oxytocin infusionAnswer
- BPerform an emergency cesarean delivery
- CInitiate a transcervical amnioinfusion
- DPrepare for immediate forceps-assisted delivery
- EReassure the patient and continue current observation