A 62-year-old man is evaluated in the surgical ward on postoperative day 5 following an open anterior resection for severe rectal prolapse. Postoperative pain was managed with a lumbar epidural catheter, which was removed yesterday. He had been ambulating with assistance and tolerating a soft diet. Over the past 12 hours, he has developed a fever, chills, and increasing lower back pain. His temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 118/72 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals exquisite tenderness to palpation over the lower lumbar spine. Neurologic examination demonstrates 3/5 motor strength in the bilateral lower extremities and diminished sensation to pinprick below the L2 dermatome. A bedside bladder ultrasound reveals 600 mL of urine, despite the patient reporting no urge to void. The abdominal incision is clean, dry, and intact with no erythema or fluctuance. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- BEmpiric administration of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- Magnetic resonance imaging of the lumbar spineAnswer
- DUrinalysis and urine culture
- ELower extremity venous duplex ultrasonography