A 9-year-old boy is hospitalized for the management of acute myeloid leukemia. He recently completed his first cycle of induction chemotherapy. Five days ago, he developed a fever of () and was found to have an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of . Blood and urine cultures were drawn, and empiric intravenous cefepime was initiated.
Today (hospital day 6 of fever), his temperature remains elevated at (). His blood pressure is 105/65 mmHg, and heart rate is 110/min. Physical examination reveals a clean central venous catheter site with no surrounding erythema or tenderness. The lungs are clear to auscultation, and there are no oral lesions or skin rashes.
Laboratory studies today show:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | |
| Leukocytes | |
| Absolute neutrophil count | |
| Platelets |
Blood cultures from admission and from two days ago have shown no growth. A chest radiograph reveals no infiltrates. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdd intravenous vancomycin
- BSwitch intravenous cefepime to intravenous meropenem
- Add intravenous caspofunginAnswer
- DAdminister granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
- EDiscontinue intravenous cefepime and observe