A 54-year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day 2 following an emergency exploratory laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer. Over the past 6 hours, the nursing staff reports that he has become highly agitated, disoriented, and profusely diaphoretic. He is currently shouting at the staff, claiming that there are "swarms of insects" crawling on the walls and his bedsheets. Medical records show no prior psychiatric history. Upon interview, his wife mentions that he typically drinks a pint of whiskey daily but has not consumed any alcohol since the morning of his admission. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 168/104 mm Hg, pulse is 126/min, and respirations are 24/min. Physical examination reveals an oriented to person only, restless patient with a coarse, rhythmic tremor of the outstretched hands. The surgical abdomen is tender but without rebound, and the incision site is clean and intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous lorazepamAnswer
- BAdminister intravenous haloperidol
- CAdminister intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DAdminister intravenous phenytoin
- EAdminister oral naltrexone