A -year-old man is brought to the emergency department for severe shortness of breath. He has a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On arrival, he is in severe respiratory distress with a respiratory rate of and paradoxical abdominal movement. Arterial blood gas on room air shows a of , of , and of . He is urgently intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation. Initial settings are volume assist-control, tidal volume of , respiratory rate of , of , and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of .
Ten minutes after intubation, the ventilator's high-pressure alarm sounds continuously, and the patient's blood pressure drops precipitously to . His heart rate is . Physical examination reveals prominent jugular venous distention. The trachea is midline, and breath sounds are symmetrically diminished bilaterally with a notably prolonged expiratory phase. Bedside echocardiography demonstrates right ventricular dilation with leftward bowing of the interventricular septum, and a small, underfilled left ventricle.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Temporarily disconnect the endotracheal tube from the ventilatorAnswer
- BAdminister intravenous furosemide
- CAdminister intravenous sodium bicarbonate
- DInitiate intravenous vancomycin and meropenem
- ETransport the patient for a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram