Seeking medical care for an unexpected return of vaginal bleeding, a 71-year-old retired teacher arrives at the gynecology office. She reports noticing red spotting on her undergarments and toilet tissue over the past two weeks. The patient transitioned through menopause 20 years ago and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding since. Her past medical history is significant for well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, essential hypertension, and obesity. Current medications include metformin and lisinopril. On physical examination, her blood pressure is , and her body mass index is . Speculum examination shows pale, dry vaginal walls without lacerations, but a small pool of dark blood is visible at the posterior fornix. Bimanual examination reveals a mobile, non-tender, anteverted uterus that is normal in size for her age. A transvaginal ultrasound is performed in the office, demonstrating an endometrial thickness of with cystic changes. The adnexa are unremarkable bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the clinical management of this patient?
- Endometrial biopsyAnswer
- BRepeat transvaginal ultrasound in 3 months
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis
- DInitiation of topical vaginal estrogen therapy
- EPapanicolaou (Pap) test