A -year-old G1P0 at weeks gestation is evaluated in the obstetric triage unit for a -day history of progressively worsening right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and profound fatigue. She reports normal fetal movement and denies any vaginal bleeding or leakage of fluid. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is mm Hg, and heart rate is /min. Physical examination reveals tenderness to deep palpation in the right upper quadrant and pitting edema of the bilateral lower extremities. Laboratory studies show:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | g/dL |
| Platelets | /mm |
| Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) | U/L |
| Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) | U/L |
| Creatinine | mg/dL |
A continuous fetal heart rate monitor shows a baseline of /min, moderate variability, and frequent early decelerations coincident with mild, irregular uterine contractions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiation of intravenous magnesium sulfate and induction of laborAnswer
- BImmediate preparation for an emergency cesarean delivery
- CAdministration of intramuscular betamethasone and delay of delivery for 48 hours
- DInitiation of intravenous labetalol and expectant inpatient management until 37 weeks
- EReassurance and discharge home as the findings reflect expected physiologic adaptations