A 68-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 3-week history of low-grade fever, fatigue, and progressive dyspnea on exertion. His medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and stage 4 chronic kidney disease with a baseline serum creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg, and heart rate is 96/min. Physical examination reveals a new grade 3/6 holosystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex and radiating to the axilla. Small, dark red linear streaks are noted under the nail beds of both hands. A transesophageal echocardiogram demonstrates a 1.2-cm mobile vegetation on the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve with moderate mitral regurgitation. Three sets of blood cultures drawn 12 hours apart all grow *Enterococcus faecalis*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing shows the isolate is susceptible to ampicillin, vancomycin, daptomycin, linezolid, and high-level gentamicin. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive intravenous pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- Ampicillin and ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BAmpicillin and gentamicin
- CVancomycin and gentamicin
- DAmpicillin monotherapy
- EDaptomycin monotherapy