An infectious diseases consultation is requested for a -year-old male inpatient. He was admitted days ago with severe back pain and fever, leading to a diagnosis of vertebral osteomyelitis and an associated epidural abscess. Urgent surgical decompression and debridement were performed on the day of admission. Blood cultures obtained prior to antibiotic administration, as well as intraoperative tissue specimens, have both grown Staphylococcus aureus. Susceptibility testing confirms the isolate is susceptible to oxacillin, cefazolin, vancomycin, and daptomycin. The patient has been receiving empiric intravenous vancomycin therapy since presentation. His medical history includes type diabetes mellitus and hypertension. years ago, he experienced a severe allergic reaction following a dose of oral amoxicillin; he rapidly developed diffuse urticaria, wheezing, and facial angioedema, which necessitated emergency administration of intramuscular epinephrine. He has no prior exposure to cephalosporin antibiotics. Currently, his vital signs are stable, and his serum creatinine is . Based on current guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this infection?
- ADiscontinue vancomycin and start intravenous oxacillin
- BContinue intravenous vancomycin
- Discontinue vancomycin and start intravenous cefazolinAnswer
- DDiscontinue vancomycin and start intravenous daptomycin
- EDiscontinue vancomycin and start intravenous linezolid