A 25-year-old woman presents to the ambulatory care clinic with complaints of increased, yellowish vaginal discharge for the past week. She denies any pelvic pain, fever, nausea, or burning with urination. The patient is sexually active with a new male partner and reports inconsistent use of barrier contraception. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she takes only a daily oral contraceptive pill. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg, and a heart rate of 78/min. On pelvic examination, the vagina appears normal, but the cervix is erythematous, edematous, and bleeds easily upon speculum contact. A sample of mucopurulent discharge is visible at the cervical os. Bimanual examination demonstrates a normal-sized, non-tender uterus and no adnexal masses or cervical motion tenderness. A rapid nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) performed in the clinic on a cervical swab returns positive for *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* and negative for *Chlamydia trachomatis*.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- ACeftriaxone and azithromycin
- BCeftriaxone and doxycycline
- CeftriaxoneAnswer
- DGentamicin and azithromycin
- EDoxycycline