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Question 3281Question →

Emergency medical services transport an unidentified adult male to the resuscitation bay after bystanders found him comatose on a park bench. Beside him, responders noted drug paraphernalia, including a burnt spoon and an empty syringe. Initial assessment reveals marked respiratory depression with a breathing rate of 4/min, accompanied by a heart rate of 45/min. Physical examination demonstrates cyanosis of the perioral area and symmetric 1-mm pupils. Which of the following pharmacologic agents should be administered immediately?

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Answer: Naloxone

Answer

Naloxone
The patient's presentation of unresponsiveness, profound respiratory depression, bradycardia, and miosis (pinpoint pupils) in the setting of intravenous drug paraphernalia is highly indicative of an acute opioid overdose. The immediate life-saving intervention is the administration of naloxone, a fast-acting competitive mu-opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the underlying toxidrome based on the clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits coma, severe respiratory depression (4 breaths/min), bradycardia, and pinpoint pupils (miosis) alongside intravenous drug paraphernalia.
Recognizing the classic triad of opioid overdose (coma, respiratory depression, miosis) establishes the definitive need for an opioid antidote.
2
Determine the most appropriate immediate pharmacological intervention.
Administration of a rapid-acting opioid antagonist.
Immediate reversal of fatal respiratory depression is the primary and most urgent life-saving goal in acute opioid intoxication.

Key Concept

Acute management of opioid intoxication involves the immediate administration of naloxone to reverse life-threatening respiratory depression.
Question 3282Question →

A 34-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her sister due to increasingly bizarre behavior. The sister reports that for the past 10 weeks, the patient has been locking herself in her room, claiming that foreign intelligence agents are monitoring her thoughts through the television. During the psychiatric interview, the patient is observed responding to unseen stimuli and her speech is frequently derailed. She has no prior psychiatric or medical history and takes no medications. A urine toxicology screen is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Schizophreniform disorder

Answer

Schizophreniform disorder
The patient presents with an acute onset of prominent psychotic symptoms, including delusions (believing agents are monitoring her), auditory hallucinations (responding to unseen stimuli), and disorganized speech (derailment). These symptoms satisfy Criterion A for a schizophrenia spectrum diagnosis. The most critical distinguishing factor in this clinical scenario is the chronological timeline. Her symptoms have been present for 10 weeks (roughly 2.5 months). In the diagnostic spectrum of primary psychotic disorders, a duration of more than 1 month but less than 6 months is the defining hallmark of schizophreniform disorder. Because her toxicology screen is negative and there are no mood symptoms, other causes of psychosis are effectively ruled out.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical syndrome.
The patient is experiencing an active psychotic episode characterized by delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech.
Establishing the presence of psychosis is the first step in formulating a differential diagnosis.
2
Determine the duration of the psychotic symptoms.
The patient's sister reports that the symptoms have been present for 10 weeks (approximately 2.5 months).
In primary psychotic disorders, symptom duration is the key distinguishing factor for diagnosis.
3
Exclude secondary causes and mood disorders.
Negative toxicology screen rules out substance-induced psychosis. Absence of mood symptoms rules out mood disorders with psychotic features and schizoaffective disorder.
Psychosis can be secondary to medical/substance issues or part of a primary mood disorder, which must be ruled out.
4
Apply DSM-5 duration criteria to isolate the correct primary psychotic disorder.
A duration of 10 weeks falls within the 1-month to 6-month window, pointing directly to schizophreniform disorder.
This confirms the diagnosis based on strict chronological criteria.

Key Concept

The differentiation of primary psychotic disorders (Brief Psychotic Disorder, Schizophreniform Disorder, Schizophrenia) relies primarily on the duration of symptoms.
Question 3283Question →

A 54-year-old female is evaluated in the emergency department on postoperative day 5 after undergoing an elective total laparoscopic hysterectomy for symptomatic leiomyomas. The operative report notes that the surgery was technically difficult due to dense pelvic adhesions. Over the past 24 hours, the patient has developed progressively worsening, generalized abdominal pain associated with multiple episodes of bilious emesis. She has not passed flatus since the day of surgery. Her temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), blood pressure is 84/52 mm Hg, pulse is 122/min, and respirations are 24/min. Pulse oximetry shows 94% on room air. The abdomen is distended, extremely tender to palpation diffusely, and exhibits striking rigidity and rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent. Pelvic examination reveals a closed and intact vaginal apex without discharge or bleeding. Intravenous fluid resuscitation is initiated immediately. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Emergent exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Emergent exploratory laparotomy
The patient is presenting with an acute abdomen (diffuse rigidity, rebound tenderness, absent bowel sounds) and septic shock (hypotension, tachycardia, high fever) on postoperative day 5 following a complicated laparoscopic hysterectomy. This presentation is highly characteristic of an unrecognized thermal bowel injury. Electrosurgical energy used during adhesiolysis or deep dissection can cause thermal damage to the adjacent bowel serosa. This tissue initially remains intact, but undergoes ischemia, necrosis, and subsequent frank perforation several days later (typically on postoperative days 3 to 7). The correct management for any patient presenting with generalized peritonitis and hemodynamic instability is immediate fluid resuscitation and emergent exploratory laparotomy to achieve source control. Diagnostic imaging is contraindicated in this scenario.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The patient exhibits generalized peritonitis (rebound tenderness, rigidity) and septic shock (hypotension, tachycardia).
To determine the severity of the patient's condition and to assess hemodynamic stability.
2
Determine the most likely etiology based on the surgical history and timing.
The clinical picture strongly suggests an unrecognized thermal bowel injury, which typically presents 3 to 7 days postoperatively after laparoscopic surgery.
Electrocautery used during pelvic adhesiolysis can cause thermal injury to the bowel serosa that initially remains intact but undergoes necrosis and frank perforation over several days.
3
Select the most appropriate management based on the patient's hemodynamic status.
Immediate fluid resuscitation followed by emergent exploratory laparotomy.
Patients with frank peritonitis and hemodynamic instability require definitive source control in the operating room; diagnostic imaging is contraindicated as it delays life-saving intervention.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with generalized peritonitis and hemodynamic instability following gynecologic surgery require emergent exploratory laparotomy without delay for diagnostic imaging, as this presentation is highly suspicious for an unrecognized intraoperative bowel injury.
Question 3284Question →

Match each patient's clinical vignette to the most accurate psychiatric diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 32-year-old woman reports feeling low and hopeless for most of her life. For the past three years, she has experienced poor energy and low self-esteem on most days, without any symptom-free periods lasting more than a month.
A 24-year-old man presents with depressed mood and anxiety that started one month after his fiancée ended their engagement. He continues to work but feels highly distressed; he does not meet full criteria for a major depressive episode.
A 45-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus presents with acute onset of severe depression and anhedonia two weeks after starting a high-dose oral glucocorticoid regimen for a recent disease flare.
A 29-year-old woman reports marked affective lability, irritability, and increased appetite that repeatedly occur during the week prior to menstruation and reliably resolve within a few days of follicular phase onset.

Matches

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Answer

Match the 32-year-old with chronic symptoms to persistent depressive disorder, the 24-year-old with recent stress to adjustment disorder, the 45-year-old on steroids to medication-induced depressive disorder, and the 29-year-old with cyclical symptoms to premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
Each diagnosis in the differential of depressive disorders has distinct requirements regarding timeline, triggers, and severity. Persistent depressive disorder requires at least 2 years of symptoms. Adjustment disorder requires an identifiable stressor within 3 months and sub-threshold symptoms for a major depressive episode. Medication-induced depressive disorder requires a plausible pharmacological trigger, such as systemic corticosteroids. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder requires symptoms strictly linked to the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first vignette's timeline.
The patient has 3 years of chronic depressive symptoms without a 2-month break.
Chronicity of 2 or more years is the defining feature of persistent depressive disorder.
2
Evaluate the second vignette's inciting event and symptom severity.
Symptoms began shortly after a breakup and do not meet major depressive disorder criteria.
This presentation meets the criteria for adjustment disorder with depressed mood.
3
Assess the third vignette's clinical context.
Severe depressive symptoms emerged shortly after initiating high-dose glucocorticoids.
Corticosteroids are a classic trigger for medication-induced depressive or psychotic symptoms.
4
Review the fourth vignette's symptom pattern.
Mood lability and irritability are strictly tied to the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.
This cyclical pattern is the absolute requirement for diagnosing premenstrual dysphoric disorder.

Key Concept

Differential diagnosis of depressive disorders based on symptom duration, inciting stressors, and cyclical patterns.
Question 3285Question →

An emergency department physician is evaluating four patients who were brought in overnight with suspected substance intoxication. Match each patient's predominant physical examination findings to the most likely intoxicating substance.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Somnolence, pinpoint pupils, and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/minute
Tachycardia, prominent conjunctival injection, and increased appetite
Combativeness, multidirectional nystagmus, and reduced perception of pain
Psychomotor agitation, dilated pupils, and acute substernal chest pain

Matches

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Answer

Somnolence/miosis matches Opioid; Conjunctival injection/appetite matches Cannabis; Nystagmus/combativeness matches Phencyclidine (PCP); Agitation/chest pain matches Cocaine.
Each substance produces a specific clinical toxidrome based on its unique receptor pharmacology. Opioids stimulate mu receptors causing miosis and respiratory depression. Cannabinoid receptor activation leads to conjunctival injection. PCP acts as an NMDA receptor antagonist causing nystagmus and dissociative anesthesia. Cocaine blocks monoamine reuptake, resulting in sympathomimetic excess and vasoconstriction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first patient's presentation of somnolence, pinpoint pupils, and hypoventilation.
Matches opioid intoxication.
These findings represent the classic opioid toxidrome.
2
Analyze the second patient's presentation of red eyes, rapid heart rate, and hunger.
Matches cannabis intoxication.
Conjunctival injection is a highly specific physical finding for acute cannabis use in this context.
3
Analyze the third patient's presentation of combativeness, nystagmus, and lack of pain.
Matches phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication.
Multidirectional or rotary nystagmus in an agitated patient is the hallmark of PCP toxicity.
4
Analyze the fourth patient's presentation of agitation, dilated pupils, and chest pain.
Matches cocaine intoxication.
Sympathomimetic excess combined with myocardial ischemia strongly points to cocaine.

Key Concept

Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders
Question 3286Question →

A 22-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his family and is subsequently diagnosed with schizophrenia. He has not received any previous psychiatric care. Arrange the following steps in the correct sequential order for the long-term psychopharmacologic management of this patient, starting with the initial therapy and progressing to the management of highly refractory disease.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: 1) Trial of a first-line antipsychotic, 2) Trial of a different first-line antipsychotic, 3) Trial of clozapine, and 4) Clozapine augmentation (e.g., with electroconvulsive therapy or a second antipsychotic).
The established algorithm for schizophrenia management begins with a single first-line antipsychotic. If the initial agent fails, a trial of a different first-line antipsychotic is indicated. If the patient fails two adequate trials of different antipsychotics, they meet the criteria for treatment-resistant schizophrenia, at which point clozapine is the gold standard. Finally, if clozapine monotherapy is insufficient, augmentation strategies such as adding another antipsychotic or ECT are used.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the initial treatment for a newly diagnosed patient with schizophrenia.
The patient should be started on monotherapy with a first-line antipsychotic (e.g., aripiprazole, risperidone).
Standard first-line agents have a favorable balance of efficacy and side effects for initial treatment.
2
Determine the next step if the first trial fails to resolve the psychosis.
The patient should be switched to a different first-line antipsychotic.
A patient must fail two different antipsychotics to meet the criteria for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
3
Select the treatment for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
Clozapine monotherapy should be initiated.
Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic for treatment-resistant cases but is reserved for the third line due to severe side effects such as agranulocytosis.
4
Determine the management if clozapine monotherapy is insufficient.
Augment clozapine with ECT or a second antipsychotic.
This is the final step in the algorithm for patients who remain refractory despite optimized clozapine therapy.

Key Concept

The standard step-wise psychopharmacologic algorithm for the treatment of schizophrenia.
Question 3287Question →

Match each gynecologic surgical procedure or specific operative step with the anatomical structure most at risk of iatrogenic injury during that intervention.

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Items

Clamping and transection of the suspensory ligament of the ovary (infundibulopelvic ligament) during an oophorectomy
Ligation of the uterine vessels at the level of the internal cervical os during a hysterectomy
Sharp dissection of the vesicouterine fold to create a bladder flap in a patient with a history of three cesarean deliveries
Suture placement into the sacrospinous ligament during an apical vaginal vault prolapse repair
Blind passage of trocar needles behind the pubic symphysis during a retropubic tension-free vaginal tape (TVT) procedure

Matches

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Answer

Infundibulopelvic ligament ligation risks the ureter at the pelvic brim. Uterine vessel ligation risks the ureter at the cardinal ligament. Vesicouterine fold dissection risks the bladder. Sacrospinous ligament fixation risks the pudendal nerve. Retropubic sling placement risks structures in the space of Retzius.
Correct mapping requires recognizing the exact three-dimensional relationships in the female pelvis. Each surgical step threatens a distinct structure based on proximity. The ureter has two classic danger zones: the pelvic brim (ovarian vessels) and the internal cervical os (uterine vessels). Anterior compartment dissections risk the bladder, particularly the dome or posterior wall when adhesions are present. Vault suspensions risk the deep pelvic neurovasculature (pudendal bundle), and retropubic passages risk the organs traversing the space of Retzius.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the anatomical relationship for oophorectomy.
The suspensory (infundibulopelvic) ligament is ligated. This structure is intimately associated with the proximal ureter at the pelvic brim.
The ureter crosses the common iliac artery bifurcation just medial to the ovarian vessels.
2
Analyze the anatomical relationship for hysterectomy at the cervix.
The uterine vessels are ligated in the cardinal ligament. This step endangers the distal ureter.
The ureter passes directly inferior to the uterine artery ('water under the bridge') at this precise location.
3
Evaluate the risk of anterior compartment dissection.
Dissecting the vesicouterine fold (bladder flap), especially with scar tissue from prior cesarean deliveries, endangers the adjacent bladder.
Adhesions obliterate the normal tissue planes, making inadvertent cystotomy likely.
4
Identify the regional neurovascular risks in prolapse surgery.
Sacrospinous ligament fixation risks the pudendal nerve/vessels.
The pudendal bundle passes directly behind the ischial spine and lateral sacrospinous ligament.
5
Trace the path of retropubic sling trocars.
Trocars pass through the space of Retzius, risking the bladder, bowel, and local vasculature.
This is a blind passage behind the pubic symphysis, requiring intraoperative cystoscopy to rule out bladder perforation.

Key Concept

Gynecologic Surgical Anatomy and Iatrogenic Injuries
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3288Question →

A 28-year-old man presents to the psychiatry clinic complaining of severe sadness, fatigue, and loss of interest in his usual hobbies for the past 3 weeks. He reports sleeping up to 14 hours a day and experiencing a significant decline in his appetite. Medical history is notable for an episode two years ago during which he felt "unstoppable," slept only 2 hours per night without feeling tired, and maxed out multiple credit cards on unnecessary purchases. That episode lasted for 10 days and resulted in a brief psychiatric hospitalization. Temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 120/78 mmHg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min. On mental status examination, the patient appears disheveled, makes poor eye contact, and exhibits psychomotor retardation. His mood is described as "miserable" and his affect is constricted. He denies suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient's current symptoms?

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Answer: Quetiapine

Answer

Quetiapine
The patient is experiencing a major depressive episode but has a distinct history of a manic episode (elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, reckless spending, and hospitalization lasting over 7 days). This presentation confirms a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressive phase. The standard of care for bipolar depression includes atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine or lurasidone, or traditional mood stabilizers like lithium or valproate. Quetiapine is FDA-approved for bipolar depression and is the safest, most effective choice among the options provided.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary underlying psychiatric disorder based on the patient's history.
The patient has a history of a 10-day episode characterized by elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, impulsivity, and hospitalization, which meets the criteria for a manic episode. This establishes a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder.
Recognizing the underlying disorder is critical, as treating just the current symptoms without considering the full history can lead to harmful pharmacological choices.
2
Determine the current phase of the patient's illness.
The patient is currently presenting with symptoms of a major depressive episode (depressed mood, anhedonia, hypersomnia, psychomotor retardation).
Pharmacotherapy in bipolar disorder is phase-specific (e.g., acute mania vs. bipolar depression vs. maintenance).
3
Select the safest and most effective evidence-based pharmacotherapy for this specific phase.
Quetiapine is selected. Antidepressant monotherapy is strictly avoided to prevent inducing a manic episode.
Quetiapine, lurasidone, and olanzapine-fluoxetine combination are among the first-line treatments specifically approved for bipolar depression.

Key Concept

Pharmacologic Management of Bipolar Depression
Estimated Time:50s
Question 3289Question →

Match each clinical vignette describing a patient with progressive cognitive decline to the most likely underlying neurocognitive disorder diagnosis.

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Items

A 55-year-old executive is fired after repeatedly making inappropriate sexual comments to subordinates. At home, she has become increasingly apathetic, neglects her personal hygiene, and obsessively consumes large quantities of candy. Her orientation and episodic memory are relatively preserved.
A 68-year-old mechanic exhibits severe, unpredictable fluctuations in daytime alertness and attention. His wife notes he frequently thrashes, punches, and yells while sleeping. Neurologic examination reveals cogwheel rigidity and bradykinesia, but no focal weakness.
A 72-year-old woman with poorly controlled diabetes and atrial fibrillation presents with prominent executive dysfunction and reduced processing speed. Her family reports her cognitive abilities worsened abruptly three months ago and have since plateaued. Exam shows an asymmetric Babinski sign.
A 75-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of a broad-based gait, describing his feet as feeling 'stuck to the floor.' He has recently developed pronounced psychomotor retardation, apathy, and episodes of urinary incontinence of which he seems unaware.

Matches

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Answer

Vignette 1 matches Frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder. Vignette 2 matches Major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. Vignette 3 matches Major vascular neurocognitive disorder. Vignette 4 matches Neurocognitive disorder due to normal pressure hydrocephalus.
Each major neurocognitive disorder has highly specific hallmark features during its early stages. Frontotemporal dementia (behavioral variant) targets the frontal lobes first, leading to profound personality shifts, hyperorality, and executive dysfunction before memory is significantly affected. Lewy body dementia is distinguished by the triad of fluctuating cognition, spontaneous parkinsonism, and complex visual hallucinations, frequently heralded by REM sleep behavior disorder. Vascular dementia relies on evidence of cerebrovascular disease, manifesting clinically as stepwise drops in cognition and focal neurologic deficits. Normal pressure hydrocephalus presents with a unique, potentially reversible triad of gait apraxia, urinary incontinence, and dementia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Vignette 1 for key distinguishing features.
Identified early disinhibition, apathy, and hyperorality with spared memory.
These are the diagnostic criteria for behavioral variant frontotemporal dementia.
2
Analyze Vignette 2 for specific neurologic and sleep abnormalities.
Identified REM sleep behavior disorder, fluctuating cognition, and parkinsonism.
These form the core clinical criteria required for diagnosing major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies.
3
Evaluate Vignette 3 for temporal onset and associated risk factors.
Identified a stepwise cognitive decline temporally related to a presumed vascular event, confirmed by asymmetric upper motor neuron signs.
Abrupt deterioration followed by plateaus in a patient with severe cardiovascular risk factors indicates vascular dementia.
4
Examine Vignette 4 for syndromic triads.
Identified the Hakim-Adams triad: magnetic gait, urinary incontinence, and cognitive decline.
This specific combination of symptoms warrants evaluation for normal pressure hydrocephalus rather than primary neurodegenerative disorders.

Key Concept

Differentiating major neurocognitive disorders based on distinct initial clinical presentations, behavioral changes, temporal progression, and associated neurologic deficits.
Question 3290Question →

A 2828-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his husband due to increasingly erratic behavior and paranoia. The husband reports that the patient's symptoms began approximately 88 weeks ago, when he started claiming that his internet service provider was intercepting his thoughts and transmitting them to a dark web forum. He also began hearing two distinct voices commenting on his daily actions. The husband emphasizes that during the first 55 weeks of these symptoms, the patient maintained a completely normal mood, slept his usual 77 hours per night, and continued to attend his job as a software engineer.

However, over the past 33 weeks, the patient abruptly developed an intensely elevated mood and boundless energy. He began sleeping only 11 to 22 hours per night without feeling fatigued, spoke so rapidly that he was difficult to interrupt, and confidently stated he was on the verge of "solving the universe's ultimate algorithm." The auditory hallucinations and paranoid delusions have persisted unchanged throughout this entire 88-week period. The patient has no prior psychiatric or medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits, and a comprehensive urine toxicology screen is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Schizophreniform disorder

Answer

Schizophreniform disorder
The correct diagnosis is Schizophreniform disorder. This patient's presentation requires precise timeline analysis to distinguish between closely related psychiatric disorders. He has experienced active-phase psychotic symptoms for a total of 88 weeks. To diagnose schizoaffective disorder, a major mood episode must be present for the majority (>50%>50\%) of the total duration of the illness, and there must be at least 22 weeks of psychosis without mood symptoms. While this patient meets the latter criterion (55 weeks of psychosis without mood symptoms), his manic episode has only been present for 33 weeks out of the 88-week illness (37.5%37.5\%). Because the mood symptoms represent a minority of the total illness duration, schizoaffective disorder is ruled out. Furthermore, because the total duration of his illness is greater than 11 month but less than 66 months, the presentation perfectly fits Schizophreniform disorder.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the total duration of the patient's psychotic symptoms.
The patient has experienced hallucinations and delusions for a total of 88 weeks.
Establishing total duration is the critical first step in differentiating brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, and schizophrenia.
2
Evaluate the relationship between the psychotic symptoms and mood symptoms.
Psychotic symptoms were present for 55 weeks before the onset of the manic episode.
Psychosis occurring for >2>2 weeks without mood symptoms rules out a primary mood disorder with psychotic features.
3
Determine the proportion of time the mood episode has been present relative to the total illness.
The manic episode has been present for 33 weeks out of the 88-week total duration (37.5%37.5\%).
Schizoaffective disorder requires mood symptoms to be present for the majority (>50%>50\%) of the total illness duration. Because it is a minority, schizoaffective disorder is definitively ruled out.
4
Synthesize findings to confirm the final diagnosis.
The diagnosis is schizophreniform disorder.
The illness has lasted between 11 and 66 months, and schizoaffective disorder has been excluded based on the proportional duration of mood symptoms.

Key Concept

Differentiating schizophrenia spectrum disorders based on exact symptom timelines and the proportional duration of concurrent mood episodes.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3291Question →

Evaluate the following distinct patient presentations and pair each with the single most accurate psychiatric diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 34-year-old woman develops sudden-onset right arm paralysis immediately following a heated argument with her spouse. Neurologic examination shows preserved deep tendon reflexes and no evidence of a specific neuroanatomic lesion.
A 45-year-old man repeatedly visits his physician convinced he has pancreatic cancer due to occasional mild indigestion. He spends hours daily researching survival rates despite multiple negative CT scans and endoscopic evaluations.
A 28-year-old intensive care nurse is hospitalized for severe hypoglycemia. Laboratory studies show markedly elevated serum insulin levels with suppressed C-peptide and a negative sulfonylurea screen.
A 41-year-old woman reports constant, widespread joint and abdominal pain for the past year. Repeated extensive medical workups are unremarkable, but she devotes excessive time and energy to worrying about her persistent pain.
A 22-year-old woman with a BMI of 23 kg/m223 \text{ kg/m}^2 presents with bilateral parotid gland swelling, dental enamel erosion, and laboratory findings of hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.

Matches

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Answer

L1 pairs with Functional neurological symptom disorder; L2 pairs with Illness anxiety disorder; L3 pairs with Factitious disorder; L4 pairs with Somatic symptom disorder; L5 pairs with Bulimia nervosa.
Each clinical vignette presents classic pathognomonic features that differentiate DSM-5 psychiatric disorders. Accurate diagnosis relies on distinguishing the primary clinical driver: acute neurologic deficits (Conversion), fear of disease (Illness Anxiety), distress over actual physical symptoms (Somatic Symptom), intentional deception without external reward (Factitious), or compensatory purging behaviors (Bulimia Nervosa).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient with non-anatomic arm paralysis following a stressor.
Identified as a neurological symptom inconsistent with known neuroanatomy.
Directs the diagnosis to functional neurological symptom disorder (conversion disorder).
2
Analyze the patient with extreme fear of pancreatic cancer but minimal symptoms.
Identified as extreme health anxiety out of proportion to actual somatic complaints.
Directs the diagnosis to illness anxiety disorder.
3
Analyze the nurse with unexplained hypoglycemia, high insulin, and low C-peptide.
Identified as intentional induction of illness (injecting exogenous insulin) to assume the sick role.
Directs the diagnosis to factitious disorder.
4
Analyze the patient with a one-year history of widespread pain and excessive worry.
Identified as highly distressing, actual physical symptoms paired with excessive psychological focus on them.
Directs the diagnosis to somatic symptom disorder.
5
Analyze the normal-weight patient with parotid swelling and metabolic alkalosis.
Identified as classic physical signs of purging behavior.
Directs the diagnosis to bulimia nervosa.

Key Concept

Differentiation of somatic symptom and eating disorders based on the presence of physical symptoms, the patient's underlying motivation, and specific clinical exam/laboratory findings.
Question 3292Question →

A 21-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by university police due to severe, unrelenting agitation and bizarre behavior. He was found barricaded in his dormitory room, shouting that government drones were attempting to abduct him. His roommate reports that the patient attended a rave 3 days ago where he ingested an unknown powder. Since then, the patient has not slept, has been pacing continuously, and has become increasingly aggressive. He has no prior psychiatric or medical history. Vital signs show a temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse of 132/min, respirations of 22/min, and blood pressure of 170/105 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals mydriasis, profuse diaphoresis, and generalized muscle rigidity without clonus. Horizontal and vertical nystagmus are absent. Routine urine toxicology screening is negative for amphetamines, cocaine, opioids, cannabis, and phencyclidine. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Synthetic cathinone intoxication

Answer

Synthetic cathinone intoxication
The correct diagnosis is synthetic cathinone intoxication. Synthetic cathinones, commonly known as 'bath salts,' are amphetamine analogs that cause profound sympathomimetic toxicity (e.g., tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, mydriasis) and altered mental status (e.g., severe agitation, combative behavior, paranoia, delirium). A key distinguishing feature of synthetic cathinone intoxication compared to other illicit stimulants (like cocaine or traditional amphetamines) is the prolonged duration of effect, which can last for several days and up to a week. Furthermore, synthetic cathinones typically do not cross-react on routine hospital urine toxicology screens, which test for classic amphetamines, cocaine, opioids, cannabis, and PCP. This patient's 3-day history of extreme agitation, autonomic instability, and negative routine urine drug screen strongly points to synthetic cathinone intoxication.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits severe, prolonged agitation, paranoia, and marked sympathomimetic toxicity (hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, diaphoresis) lasting 3 days after ingesting an unknown powder.
Identifying the toxidrome is the first step in determining the offending agent.
2
Evaluate the laboratory findings.
The routine urine toxicology screen is negative for common substances, including amphetamines, cocaine, and phencyclidine (PCP).
A negative standard drug screen in the setting of severe sympathomimetic toxicity suggests a designer drug or synthetic analog.
3
Synthesize clinical and laboratory data to form a diagnosis.
The combination of severe sympathomimetic signs, prolonged delirium/psychosis (lasting days), and a negative routine urine drug screen is the hallmark of synthetic cathinone (bath salts) intoxication.
Differentiating among stimulants requires comparing duration of action and detectability on standard tests.

Key Concept

Synthetic cathinone (bath salts) intoxication presents with severe, prolonged sympathomimetic toxicity and delirium, and does not typically trigger a positive result on standard urine drug screens.
Question 3293Question →

A physician evaluates a 28-year-old woman who recently noticed a palpable nodule in her left breast. She states that the lump was found incidentally while showering two weeks ago. The patient denies any local pain, skin dimpling, or nipple discharge. She has never been pregnant and has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle; her last menses concluded five days prior to the visit. She has no significant past medical history and no family history of malignancy. On examination, the patient's vital signs are within normal limits. Breast examination demonstrates a 2.5-cm, rubbery, mobile, non-tender mass located in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. There are no overlying cutaneous abnormalities, and axillary palpation reveals no enlarged lymph nodes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Targeted ultrasound of the left breast

Answer

Targeted ultrasound of the left breast
The correct answer is targeted ultrasound of the left breast. In the evaluation of a new palpable breast mass, the patient's age determines the initial imaging modality. For women under 30 years of age, targeted ultrasound is the preferred first step. This is because younger women typically have dense, radiopaque breast tissue that makes mammography less sensitive and harder to interpret. Ultrasound is highly effective at differentiating between solid masses (such as a fibroadenoma) and cystic structures (such as a simple cyst) without exposing the patient to ionizing radiation. If the ultrasound reveals suspicious features, further workup such as a core needle biopsy would then be indicated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical presentation.
A 28-year-old woman presents with a new, painless, palpable 2.5-cm mass in the left breast.
Establishing the patient's age and the nature of the symptom dictates the subsequent diagnostic algorithm.
2
Determine the appropriate initial diagnostic modality based on patient age.
For women under 30 years of age, targeted breast ultrasound is the initial imaging test of choice.
Younger women have denser breast tissue, which decreases the sensitivity of mammography. Ultrasound effectively distinguishes between solid and cystic lesions without radiation exposure.

Key Concept

The initial evaluation of a palpable breast mass in women under 30 years of age requires targeted ultrasound, whereas diagnostic mammography is the preferred initial modality for women 30 years and older.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3294Question →

A 26-year-old man is brought to the primary care clinic by his mother, who expresses deep concern about his lack of a social life. The patient lives in his mother's basement and works entirely from home as a freelance computer programmer. His mother insists the physician evaluate him for a 'chemical imbalance' and explicitly requests to be informed of the treatment plan. During a private interview, the patient makes poor eye contact and displays a markedly restricted affect. He states, 'I am only here to get her off my back. I have no desire to make friends or find a romantic partner; I find interacting with people to be tedious and I prefer my own company.' He denies feeling sad, hopeless, or anxious. He also firmly denies experiencing auditory hallucinations, paranoid thoughts, or holding bizarre beliefs. He explicitly requests that his mother not be told anything about the details of his visit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the physician?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Discuss the diagnosis of schizoid personality disorder and respect his request for confidentiality

Answer

The correct action is to discuss the diagnosis of schizoid personality disorder with the patient privately and respect his request for confidentiality.
This patient exhibits classic features of schizoid personality disorder, which is characterized by a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression. Unlike avoidant personality disorder (where patients desire relationships but fear rejection), patients with schizoid personality disorder genuinely prefer isolation and are indifferent to the approval or criticism of others. Since he does not have positive psychotic symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, delusions), a schizophrenia spectrum diagnosis is incorrect. Furthermore, as a competent adult who does not pose an imminent threat of harm, he retains the legal and ethical right to confidentiality. The physician must respect his request to keep the medical details private from his mother, even though she arranged the appointment and provides his housing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the most likely psychiatric diagnosis based on the patient's presentation.
The patient's lifelong pattern of voluntary social withdrawal, lack of desire for relationships, and restricted affect—without positive psychotic symptoms or depressed mood—indicates schizoid personality disorder.
Distinguishing schizoid personality disorder from schizophrenia spectrum disorders and depression is essential for formulating an appropriate clinical approach.
2
Evaluate the ethical implications of the mother's request for information.
The patient is a competent adult who has explicitly refused consent for his medical information to be shared with his mother.
Physicians must uphold patient confidentiality unless there is an imminent, specific threat of harm to the patient or others.
3
Determine the most appropriate comprehensive management step.
The physician should address the patient's schizoid personality disorder in a supportive manner while maintaining strict confidentiality regarding the visit.
This respects the patient's autonomy, adheres to ethical guidelines, and avoids inappropriate psychiatric interventions.

Key Concept

Schizoid personality disorder presents with voluntary social withdrawal and restricted affect; management involves respecting the patient's autonomy and maintaining confidentiality, even when family members demand information.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3295Question →

A 29-year-old woman presents to the psychiatry clinic seeking treatment for new-onset severe anxiety, frequent panic attacks, and irritability that began 2 months ago. She has a history of bipolar II disorder; she was previously treated with valproate but discontinued all medications two years ago and has been stable since. The patient works as a fitness model and notes a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss over the last 2 months, which she attributes to "burning nervous energy." She feels constantly "on edge" and has been struggling with insomnia. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 135/85 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 112/min. Physical examination reveals a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, brisk deep tendon reflexes, and no palpable thyroid enlargement. An initial laboratory workup is obtained to rule out medical causes of her anxiety:

Laboratory TestResultReference Range
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)0.02 µU/mL0.4 - 4.0 µU/mL
Free T40.5 ng/dL0.9 - 1.7 ng/dL
Free T36.8 pg/mL2.3 - 4.2 pg/mL

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Measure serum thyroglobulin concentration

Answer

Measure serum thyroglobulin concentration
The correct answer is to measure serum thyroglobulin concentration. This patient presents with clinical signs of thyrotoxicosis (anxiety, panic attacks, weight loss, tachycardia, tremor, hyperreflexia) that masquerade as a primary anxiety disorder. Her thyroid panel reveals a suppressed TSH, low Free T4, and elevated Free T3. This specific pattern—low T4 combined with high T3—is highly indicative of exogenous liothyronine (T3) use, a substance sometimes abused for rapid weight loss (e.g., by fitness models). The exogenous T3 suppresses pituitary TSH secretion, which subsequently shuts down endogenous thyroid hormone (T4) production, resulting in the low Free T4 level. To definitively distinguish factitious thyrotoxicosis (exogenous use) from endogenous causes like destructive thyroiditis, a serum thyroglobulin level should be measured. Thyroglobulin is a precursor protein produced by functional thyroid tissue; it will be low (suppressed) in exogenous hormone abuse but elevated in destructive thyroiditis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical presentation and vital signs.
The patient exhibits severe anxiety, panic attacks, weight loss, tachycardia, and tremor, which strongly suggest a hypermetabolic state such as thyrotoxicosis.
Psychiatric symptoms often have underlying medical etiologies that must be ruled out before making a primary psychiatric diagnosis.
2
Analyze the thyroid function tests.
The panel shows suppressed TSH, low Free T4, and high Free T3.
This specific combination (Low T4, High T3) indicates exogenous T3 (liothyronine) ingestion. The exogenous T3 suppresses pituitary TSH, which in turn halts endogenous T4 production.
3
Determine the best diagnostic test to confirm the etiology.
Select serum thyroglobulin concentration measurement.
Thyroglobulin is produced by active thyroid tissue. It will be low in exogenous hormone abuse due to glandular suppression, but high in endogenous hyperthyroidism or destructive thyroiditis.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with new-onset psychiatric symptoms must be evaluated for medical etiologies; a thyroid profile showing suppressed TSH, low Free T4, and high Free T3 indicates factitious thyrotoxicosis, which is confirmed with a low serum thyroglobulin level.
Question 3296Question →

A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic due to feeling "constantly on edge" for the past 8 months. During this time, she has experienced excessive, uncontrollable worry about her job performance, finances, and relationships. She reports associated muscle tension, poor concentration, and feeling easily fatigued. She denies any depressed mood, suicidal ideation, or hallucinations. Two years ago, she was hospitalized for a 3-week episode characterized by a severely decreased need for sleep, euphoric mood, pressured speech, and hypersexuality. She was treated with a medication that she stopped taking 6 months ago. Her current medications include a daily multivitamin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows mild trapezius muscle tenderness but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory studies show a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 2.1 µU/mL (normal: 0.5-5.0 µU/mL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Refer for cognitive behavioral therapy

Answer

Refer for cognitive behavioral therapy
This patient's presentation of excessive, uncontrollable worry lasting for at least 6 months, accompanied by fatigue, poor concentration, and muscle tension, is diagnostic of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD). First-line treatments for GAD include antidepressants (SSRIs, SNRIs) and cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). However, this patient's past psychiatric history is highly significant for a manic episode (euphoria, severely decreased sleep, pressured speech, hypersexuality), meaning her underlying diagnosis includes Bipolar I Disorder. Because she stopped her previous psychiatric medication 6 months ago, she is currently unprotected from mood destabilization. Initiating an SSRI or SNRI monotherapy in this patient is strongly contraindicated due to the high risk of precipitating a manic switch. Therefore, non-pharmacological treatment with CBT is the safest and most appropriate first-line management for her anxiety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary current diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD).
She has experienced greater than 6 months of excessive, uncontrollable worry accompanied by somatic symptoms including muscle tension, fatigue, and poor concentration.
2
Identify any relevant past psychiatric history that would affect medication management.
The patient has a history of Bipolar I Disorder.
Two years ago, she had a 3-week hospitalization for an episode of decreased need for sleep, euphoric mood, pressured speech, and hypersexuality, which is a classic manic episode.
3
Determine the safest and most effective first-line treatment for GAD in this specific patient.
Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most appropriate next step.
While SSRIs and SNRIs are typically first-line for GAD, administering them as monotherapy in an unmedicated patient with Bipolar I Disorder carries a high risk of precipitating a manic episode. CBT is highly effective for GAD and completely avoids pharmacological risks.

Key Concept

First-line management of generalized anxiety disorder in patients with a history of bipolar disorder
Question 3297Question →

A 2828-year-old graphic designer is evaluated at an outpatient clinic following a referral from her gastroenterologist. For the past 1414 months, she has experienced persistent, daily pelvic discomfort and generalized muscle aches. She describes these sensations as severely distressing and states that they significantly impair her ability to focus on her job. She spends roughly 33 to 44 hours each evening researching her physical symptoms on medical forums, firmly believing she suffers from an undetected, rare autoimmune pathology. Extensive laboratory tests, pelvic ultrasounds, and endoscopic evaluations have repeatedly shown no organic abnormalities. She does not intentionally produce or feign these symptoms. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Somatic symptom disorder

Answer

Somatic symptom disorder
The correct answer is Somatic symptom disorder because the patient presents with one or more somatic symptoms (pelvic discomfort, muscle aches) that are highly distressing and disrupt daily life. Furthermore, she exhibits excessive behaviors and thoughts related to these symptoms (spending hours researching, believing she has a rare illness) that have persisted for more than 6 months. Her symptoms are not intentionally feigned, confirming a true somatic spectrum pathology.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's primary symptoms and their duration.
The patient has actual physical symptoms (pelvic discomfort, muscle aches) that are severely distressing and have lasted for over a year (14 months).
Establishing the presence and duration of physical symptoms is the first step in diagnosing somatic symptom and related disorders.
2
Evaluate the patient's psychological response to the symptoms.
The patient exhibits excessive thoughts and behaviors related to her health, spending 3 to 4 hours daily researching her symptoms and believing she has a severe, undetected illness despite negative workups.
DSM-5 criteria for somatic symptom disorder require excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the somatic symptoms.
3
Rule out intentional production of symptoms and alternate specific diagnostic categories.
The symptoms are not intentionally produced (ruling out factitious disorder and malingering), and there are no specific neurological motor/sensory deficits (ruling out conversion disorder). Furthermore, the physical symptoms are prominent and distressing, ruling out illness anxiety disorder.
Accurate psychiatric diagnosis requires confirming the condition is not better explained by a differential diagnosis on the somatic spectrum.

Key Concept

The primary distinction between Somatic Symptom Disorder and Illness Anxiety Disorder is the prominent presence of distressing physical symptoms in the former.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3298Question →

A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate. The patient has a known history of bipolar I disorder but stopped taking his prescribed lithium six months ago. Over the past three weeks, he has become increasingly withdrawn, sleeping up to 14 hours a day, and feeling profoundly depressed. Today, he told his roommate, "I cannot take this pain anymore. I am going to jump off the city bridge tonight." In the emergency department, the patient is tearful, confirms his intent and plan, and demands to be discharged immediately. He states, "You cannot keep me here against my will. I want to leave right now." Vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Place the patient on an involuntary psychiatric hold

Answer

Place the patient on an involuntary psychiatric hold
The correct course of action is to place the patient on an involuntary psychiatric hold. This patient demonstrates a classic psychiatric emergency: acute, active suicidality with intent and a specific, highly lethal plan. When a patient poses an imminent danger to themselves or others and lacks the capacity to safely care for themselves (as evidenced by the intent to commit suicide), physicians are legally empowered and ethically required to initiate an involuntary hold. This temporarily overrides the patient's autonomy to prioritize their life and safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's risk of harm.
The patient has active suicidal ideation with a specific, lethal plan (jumping off a bridge tonight) and explicit intent.
Determining the level of risk is critical for triaging psychiatric emergencies and deciding the appropriate level of care.
2
Evaluate the patient's willingness to receive care.
The patient is actively refusing voluntary admission and demanding to leave the emergency department.
A patient's refusal of care dictates whether voluntary or involuntary legal pathways must be utilized.
3
Apply legal and ethical principles for acute psychiatric emergencies.
Because the patient is an imminent danger to himself, the principle of beneficence and state laws mandate an involuntary psychiatric hold to prevent suicide.
Physicians have a duty to intervene and temporarily suspend patient autonomy when there is a severe, acute, and foreseeable risk of life-ending self-harm.

Key Concept

Patients who present with active suicidal ideation, intent, and a specific plan must be hospitalized to ensure their safety. If they refuse voluntary admission, an involuntary psychiatric hold must be initiated.
Question 3299Question →

Evaluate the following distinct adverse clinical outcomes observed in patients receiving pharmacotherapy for bipolar disorder. Match each clinical presentation to the specific psychotropic medication most strongly associated with its development.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Fetal ultrasound at 18 weeks gestation demonstrating downward displacement of the tricuspid valve leaflets into the right ventricle.
Development of a painful, blistering mucocutaneous rash with epidermal detachment spreading across the trunk within two weeks of medication initiation.
New-onset lethargy and confusion accompanied by laboratory evidence of severe euvolemic hyponatremia (serum sodium 122 mEq/L) and low serum osmolality.
Routine follow-up laboratory testing revealing newly elevated serum transaminases and prolonged prothrombin time, prompting concern for fulminant hepatic necrosis.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches are: tricuspid valve displacement to Lithium; blistering mucocutaneous rash to Lamotrigine; euvolemic hyponatremia to Carbamazepine; and hepatotoxicity to Valproate.
Each mood stabilizer possesses a distinct, high-yield adverse effect profile that dictates clinical monitoring. Lithium is teratogenic (Ebstein anomaly) and causes nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and hypothyroidism. Lamotrigine requires slow titration specifically to mitigate the risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Carbamazepine is a well-known inducer of SIADH, leading to hyponatremia. Valproate carries black-box warnings for hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, and neural tube defects.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each clinical presentation to identify the underlying pathophysiologic condition.
Identified Ebstein anomaly, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, SIADH/hyponatremia, and drug-induced hepatotoxicity.
Recognizing the specific adverse event is necessary before identifying the causative pharmacologic agent.
2
Correlate each identified condition with the known adverse effect profiles of common bipolar disorder maintenance therapies.
Lithium causes Ebstein anomaly; lamotrigine causes SJS; carbamazepine causes SIADH; valproate causes hepatotoxicity.
Testing core pharmacological knowledge of major mood stabilizers is a standard competency requirement.
3
Pair each clinical finding with the corresponding medication.
Matched all 4 items accurately based on drug-toxicity profiles.
Completes the matching requirements of the assessment.

Key Concept

Adverse effect profiles and toxicity monitoring of mood stabilizers used in bipolar disorder.
Question 3300Question →

Match each clinical presentation with the most likely sleep-wake disorder diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 55-year-old obese man presents with loud snoring, witnessed gasping during sleep, and morning headaches.
A 22-year-old woman experiences overwhelming daytime sleepiness and sudden bilateral muscle weakness triggered by laughing.
A 45-year-old woman complains of a 'crawling' sensation in her legs occurring only when lying in bed, which improves with walking.
A 68-year-old man frequently punches and kicks his partner during sleep while 'fighting off attackers' in his vivid dreams.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Obstructive Sleep Apnea matches with the snoring and obese patient. Narcolepsy Type 1 matches with the sleepiness and cataplexy presentation. Restless Legs Syndrome matches with the leg crawling sensation. REM Sleep Behavior Disorder matches with the dream enactment.
Each presentation matches a distinct sleep disorder mechanism: anatomical airway obstruction causes Obstructive Sleep Apnea; hypocretin deficiency causes the cataplexy seen in Narcolepsy Type 1; dopaminergic dysfunction is thought to drive the sensory urges in Restless Legs Syndrome; and brainstem pathway degeneration leads to the loss of atonia in REM Sleep Behavior Disorder.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first clinical vignette regarding the 55-year-old obese man.
The symptoms of loud snoring, witnessed gasping, and morning headaches indicate upper airway collapse during sleep.
This constellation of symptoms perfectly matches Obstructive Sleep Apnea.
2
Analyze the second clinical vignette regarding the 22-year-old woman.
The presence of overwhelming daytime sleepiness alongside sudden muscle weakness triggered by laughter (cataplexy) is identified.
Cataplexy is highly specific for Narcolepsy Type 1.
3
Analyze the third clinical vignette regarding the 45-year-old woman.
The 'crawling' sensation in the legs that occurs at rest and is relieved by movement is recognized.
These are the diagnostic clinical criteria for Restless Legs Syndrome.
4
Analyze the fourth clinical vignette regarding the 68-year-old man.
The act of physically fighting during vivid dreams indicates a failure of the normal motor paralysis that should occur during REM sleep.
This lack of REM atonia with dream enactment defines REM Sleep Behavior Disorder.

Key Concept

Clinical presentation and diagnostic criteria of primary sleep-wake disorders.
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