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Question 3321Question →

A 20-year-old collegiate gymnast is evaluated at the university clinic after reporting several weeks of profound muscle weakness, generalized fatigue, and intermittent muscle cramps. Her vital signs are temperature 37.0∘C37.0^\circ\text{C} (98.6∘F98.6^\circ\text{F}), heart rate 94/min, blood pressure 105/65 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 18/min. BMI is 19.5 kg/m 2^2. Physical examination reveals dry mucous membranes and diminished deep tendon reflexes bilaterally. Her dental enamel is completely intact, and there are no calloused lesions on the dorsal aspects of her hands. The parotid glands are not enlarged.

Laboratory studies are obtained and show the following:

Arterial Blood Gas (Room Air)ResultReference Range
pH7.297.35-7.45
pCO2pCO_229 mm Hg35-45 mm Hg
pO2pO_295 mm Hg80-100 mm Hg
Serum ChemistryResultReference Range
Sodium138 mEq/L136-145 mEq/L
Potassium2.7 mEq/L3.5-5.0 mEq/L
Chloride114 mEq/L95-105 mEq/L
Bicarbonate13 mEq/L22-28 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen22 mg/dL7-18 mg/dL
Creatinine1.0 mg/dL0.6-1.2 mg/dL
Glucose85 mg/dL70-110 mg/dL

Which of the following compensatory behaviors is most likely responsible for this patient's clinical and laboratory findings?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Frequent use of stimulant laxatives

Answer

The correct answer is frequent use of stimulant laxatives.
The correct answer is frequent use of stimulant laxatives. This patient presents with a normal body mass index, hypokalemia (2.7 mEq/L2.7 \text{ mEq/L}), and a normal anion gap (hyperchloremic) metabolic acidosis. The anion gap is calculated as 138−(114+13)=11 mEq/L138 - (114 + 13) = 11 \text{ mEq/L}, which is normal. In the context of a young female collegiate athlete, this presentation is highly suggestive of an eating disorder with purging behaviors. Laxatives cause significant gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate (HCO3−HCO_3^-) and potassium (K+K^+), leading directly to a hypokalemic, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis. The absence of dental erosions, parotid swelling, and Russell sign (calluses on hands) further points away from vomiting as the method of purging.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas and serum chemistry to determine the primary acid-base disorder.
The patient has a low pH (7.29) and a low bicarbonate (13 mEq/L13 \text{ mEq/L}), indicating a metabolic acidosis. The pCO2pCO_2 of 29 mm Hg reflects an appropriate respiratory compensation.
Identifying the primary disturbance is the first step in narrowing the differential diagnosis for electrolyte abnormalities.
2
Calculate the serum anion gap (AG).
AG=Na+−(Cl−+HCO3−)=138−(114+13)=11 mEq/LAG = Na^+ - (Cl^- + HCO_3^-) = 138 - (114 + 13) = 11 \text{ mEq/L}. This is within the normal range (8-12 mEq/L), indicating a normal anion gap (hyperchloremic) metabolic acidosis.
The anion gap distinguishes between different etiologies of metabolic acidosis (e.g., normal AG vs. elevated AG).
3
Correlate the normal anion gap metabolic acidosis and profound hypokalemia with the clinical presentation.
A normal BMI athlete presenting with weakness, hypokalemia, and normal AG metabolic acidosis without signs of vomiting (no dental erosions, no parotid swelling) strongly suggests laxative abuse.
Different purging methods cause distinct electrolyte profiles; distinguishing laxative abuse (acidosis) from vomiting (alkalosis) is a critical diagnostic skill.

Key Concept

Bulimia nervosa (purging type via laxative abuse) presents with hypokalemia and a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis due to gastrointestinal loss of potassium and bicarbonate.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3322Question →

During a routine follow-up at a community health clinic, a 2929-year-old male construction worker describes experiencing severe restlessness, diffuse muscle aches, abdominal cramping, and insomnia over the previous 3636 hours. The patient discloses that he had been illicitly purchasing oxycodone to self-medicate for chronic lower back pain. However, he abruptly discontinued its use 22 days ago to 'get clean.' He is highly motivated to remain abstinent and emphatically declines any opioid-based substitution therapy, emphasizing his desire for a non-addictive treatment option. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 37.6∘C37.6^\circ\text{C} (99.7∘F99.7^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure of 156/98 mm Hg156/98\text{ mm Hg}, heart rate of 118 /min118\text{ /min}, and respiratory rate of 18 /min18\text{ /min}. Physical examination demonstrates an anxious, diaphoretic patient with prominent piloerection, frequent yawning, and mydriasis. To specifically target this patient's acute autonomic hyperarousal, the physician prescribes a non-opioid medication. Which of the following neuropharmacological mechanisms best describes the action of the most appropriate drug for this indication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stimulation of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors

Answer

Stimulation of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors
This patient is experiencing acute opioid withdrawal, characterized by prominent sympathetic hyperarousal (tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, diaphoresis), piloerection, yawning, and gastrointestinal distress following the abrupt cessation of oxycodone. The standard of care for opioid withdrawal typically involves opioid agonist or partial agonist substitution (e.g., methadone, buprenorphine). However, because this patient explicitly refuses opioid-based therapies, non-opioid symptomatic management is indicated. The most appropriate pharmacologic intervention to mitigate the central autonomic hyperactivity in this setting is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, such as clonidine or lofexidine. These agents stimulate central alpha-2 receptors in the locus coeruleus, which effectively decreases sympathetic outflow and alleviates symptoms like tachycardia, hypertension, and diaphoresis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The patient exhibits autonomic hyperactivity (tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis, mydriasis), piloerection, yawning, and gastrointestinal distress 3636 hours after discontinuing oxycodone.
To establish the diagnosis of acute opioid withdrawal.
2
Identify the patient's specific treatment preferences and constraints.
The patient explicitly refuses opioid-based substitution therapy (e.g., methadone, buprenorphine).
To determine that a non-opioid symptomatic management strategy is required.
3
Determine the most appropriate non-opioid medication to manage the central sympathetic hyperarousal.
Clonidine or lofexidine is indicated to suppress the central autonomic overdrive.
These agents target the locus coeruleus to relieve acute withdrawal symptoms.
4
Identify the neuropharmacological mechanism of the selected medication.
These medications act via stimulation of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors.
To answer the specific question asked in the prompt regarding the mechanism of action.

Key Concept

Management of acute opioid withdrawal using central alpha-2 adrenergic agonists (e.g., clonidine, lofexidine) when opioid substitution therapy is refused or contraindicated.
Question 3323Question →

A 24-year-old woman presents to the outpatient psychiatry clinic complaining of persistent sadness, fatigue, and lack of motivation for the past month. She reports sleeping up to 14 hours a day, an increased appetite with a 4 kg (8.8 lb) weight gain, and difficulty concentrating at work. Medical history is unremarkable, and she does not use illicit substances. During the interview, she mentions that two years ago, she experienced a distinct 6-day period where she felt exceptionally energetic and creative. During that time, she slept only 2 hours a night without feeling tired, spoke much faster than usual, and impulsively booked an expensive vacation she could not afford. Her symptoms during that period did not require hospitalization and resolved spontaneously. If initiated as monotherapy for her current presentation, which of the following medications is most likely to precipitate an adverse psychiatric outcome?

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Answer: Citalopram

Answer

Citalopram
Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). This patient's presentation of a current major depressive episode (hypersomnia, hyperphagia, sadness) and a history of a distinct 6-day period of elevated mood and energy (hypomania) is diagnostic of bipolar II disorder. In patients with bipolar disorder, the use of antidepressant monotherapy is strictly contraindicated because it carries a significant risk of precipitating a manic or hypomanic episode (manic switch). Therefore, starting citalopram monotherapy is the most likely intervention to cause an adverse psychiatric outcome.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's past psychiatric history.
The patient had a 6-day episode of elevated energy, decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and impulsivity not requiring hospitalization.
This establishes a history of a hypomanic episode.
2
Evaluate the patient's current symptoms.
The patient presents with a one-month history of sadness, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and poor concentration.
This establishes a current major depressive episode.
3
Synthesize the findings to establish a diagnosis.
A history of a hypomanic episode plus a current major depressive episode meets the criteria for bipolar II disorder.
Accurate diagnosis is essential for guiding pharmacotherapy and avoiding contraindicated medications.
4
Identify the contraindicated medication class for this diagnosis.
Antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated in bipolar disorder due to the risk of precipitating a manic or hypomanic episode.
Citalopram is an antidepressant (SSRI), whereas the other options are mood stabilizers or antipsychotics that are safe in this condition.

Key Concept

In patients with bipolar disorder (I or II), the use of antidepressant monotherapy (such as SSRIs) is contraindicated because it can precipitate a manic or hypomanic episode (manic switch).
Question 3324Question →

A 72-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department from an assisted living facility due to a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain out of proportion to physical findings, accompanied by bloody diarrhea. An urgent CT angiogram of the abdomen confirms acute mesenteric ischemia. Emergency bowel resection is indicated to prevent death. The patient has a 40-year history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia. During the evaluation, she is actively hallucinating and states, "The government put snakes in my belly. If you cut me open, they will escape and eat everyone." She adamantly refuses the surgery. Her vital signs are temperature 37.8°C (100.0°F), blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, pulse 115/min, and respirations 22/min. The medical record includes a valid advance directive executed five years ago during a period of psychiatric stability. This document appoints her eldest daughter as her sole healthcare proxy. The daughter is contacted by phone, understands the grave prognosis, but declines the surgery, stating, "When she was lucid, my mother explicitly told me she never wanted major surgery or life support at this stage of her life." The patient's younger son arrives at the emergency department shortly after. He is distraught and demands that the surgical team operate immediately, stating, "I am her son too! You have to save her, do the surgery now!" Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Withhold the surgical intervention and initiate palliative care measures as directed by the daughter.

Answer

Withhold the surgical intervention and initiate palliative care measures as directed by the daughter.
This patient requires emergent surgery but lacks decision-making capacity due to her active psychotic delusions, which prevent her from understanding the risks and benefits of the procedure. When a patient lacks capacity, medical decisions are deferred to a surrogate decision-maker. This patient has a valid advance directive appointing her daughter as her healthcare proxy. The authority of a legally appointed healthcare proxy supersedes that of other family members, including the son. Because the daughter is making a decision that is consistent with the patient's previously expressed wishes during a lucid interval, the physician is ethically and legally bound to respect this decision, withhold surgery, and provide palliative care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's decision-making capacity.
The patient lacks capacity because her active delusions prevent her from understanding the clinical reality of her condition.
A patient must have capacity to refuse life-saving medical treatment.
2
Identify the appropriate surrogate decision-maker.
The daughter is the legally appointed healthcare proxy from an advance directive executed when the patient was stable.
A designated healthcare proxy has legal authority that supersedes other family members.
3
Determine the appropriate clinical action based on the surrogate's decision.
The proxy refuses surgery based on the patient's known prior wishes.
The medical team must honor the patient's autonomy as exercised through her valid surrogate, despite the son's objections.

Key Concept

In patients lacking decision-making capacity, a legally appointed healthcare proxy has absolute authority over other family members, and their decisions—when based on the patient's previously expressed wishes—must be respected even if they result in the patient's death.
Question 3325Question →

A 32-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her sister due to a 3-week history of worsening social withdrawal, profound sadness, and extreme fatigue. The patient sleeps up to 15 hours a day and frequently states, "Everyone would be better off without me." Her sister notes the patient recently stopped attending her job as an accountant.

Review of her medical history reveals a depressive episode three years ago, for which her primary care physician prescribed fluoxetine. Three weeks into that treatment, the patient abruptly quit a previous job, flew to another continent alone, and spent her entire life savings over the course of seven days while sleeping less than two hours per night. She was hospitalized abroad, the fluoxetine was discontinued, and her mood gradually stabilized over the next month.

The patient currently takes no medications and uses no illicit substances. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a flat affect and psychomotor retardation.

Laboratory results are as follows:
TestResultReference Range
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)4.2 mU/L0.5 - 5.0 mU/L
Free thyroxine (T4)1.1 ng/dL0.9 - 1.7 ng/dL

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine therapy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to initiate quetiapine therapy.
The correct intervention is to initiate quetiapine therapy. Although this patient is currently presenting with a severe depressive episode, a thorough review of her psychiatric history reveals a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. Three years ago, she experienced an antidepressant-induced manic episode characterized by a decreased need for sleep, impulsivity (spending her life savings, traveling to a foreign continent), and functional deterioration requiring hospitalization. According to DSM-5 criteria, a full manic episode that emerges during antidepressant treatment and persists beyond the physiological effect of the treatment is sufficient to diagnose Bipolar I Disorder. When a patient with Bipolar I Disorder presents with an acute depressive episode, the standard of care is to initiate a medication with established efficacy for bipolar depression, such as specific atypical antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone, cariprazine) or mood stabilizers (e.g., lithium, lamotrigine). Quetiapine is an excellent first-line choice because it acts rapidly to treat both the depressed mood and the associated severe insomnia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current clinical presentation.
The patient is experiencing a severe major depressive episode characterized by hypersomnia, profound sadness, functional impairment, and passive suicidal ideation.
Establishing the current affective state is required before determining pharmacological needs.
2
Evaluate the psychiatric history for differentiating features between unipolar and bipolar depression.
The patient has a history of an antidepressant-induced manic episode (decreased sleep, reckless spending, impulsive travel) requiring hospitalization.
According to DSM-5, a full manic episode that emerges during antidepressant treatment and persists beyond the physiological effect of the drug establishes a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.
3
Select the appropriate pharmacotherapy for acute bipolar depression.
Quetiapine (an atypical antipsychotic) is selected. Antidepressant monotherapy must be avoided.
In Bipolar I Disorder, antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated due to the high risk of precipitating a manic switch. First-line treatments for bipolar depression include quetiapine, lurasidone, or mood stabilizers like lithium.

Key Concept

Prior to initiating pharmacotherapy for a major depressive episode, it is critical to screen for a history of mania or hypomania (including antidepressant-induced episodes). Patients with Bipolar I Disorder who present with depression should be treated with an atypical antipsychotic approved for bipolar depression (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone) or a mood stabilizer, rather than antidepressant monotherapy.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3326Question →

An 81-year-old retired teacher is accompanied to the outpatient geriatrics clinic by her daughter. The daughter reports that over the past six to nine months, the patient has become increasingly forgetful and struggles to plan her usual weekly garden club meetings. Furthermore, the patient has recently stopped visiting her friends because she is embarrassed by frequent episodes of urinary incontinence. When asked about her mobility, the patient states, 'My feet feel like they are stuck to the ground.' Medical history is significant for well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and mild osteoarthritis. Vital signs are within normal limits. Neurologic examination reveals a wide-based, slow, shuffling gait, but there is no resting tremor, cogwheel rigidity, or bradykinesia of the upper extremities. Cognitive testing reveals prominent deficits in executive function and attention. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

Answer

The most likely diagnosis is Normal pressure hydrocephalus.
The correct answer is Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). NPH is a potentially reversible cause of dementia characterized by the classic clinical triad of abnormal gait (described as magnetic, wide-based, or shuffling), urinary incontinence, and cognitive decline (particularly prominent executive dysfunction and psychomotor slowing). The gait abnormality is typically the first symptom to appear. The underlying pathophysiology involves decreased absorption of cerebrospinal fluid at the arachnoid granulations, leading to ventriculomegaly. The enlarged ventricles stretch the descending cortical fibers of the corona radiata, particularly those controlling leg movement and bladder function, resulting in the characteristic symptoms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's presenting clinical symptoms and their timeline.
The patient exhibits a triad of cognitive decline (executive dysfunction), urinary incontinence, and a 'glued to the ground' magnetic gait developing over several months.
Identifying the specific symptom cluster is crucial for distinguishing between various major neurocognitive disorders.
2
Evaluate the neurologic examination findings to rule out related differentials.
The absence of resting tremor, cogwheel rigidity, and upper extremity bradykinesia makes Parkinson disease dementia and Dementia with Lewy bodies highly unlikely.
Gait abnormalities can be seen in multiple disorders, but the specific pattern (magnetic gait without upper body parkinsonism) isolates the pathology.
3
Synthesize the findings to establish the underlying etiology.
The clinical picture strongly points to Normal pressure hydrocephalus, caused by decreased cerebrospinal fluid absorption leading to enlarged ventricles that stretch the corona radiata.
The triad of 'wacky, wet, and wobbly' is the hallmark presentation of this potentially reversible condition.

Key Concept

Normal pressure hydrocephalus presents with the classic clinical triad of gait apraxia (magnetic gait), urinary incontinence, and cognitive decline (dementia), and is characterized by enlarged ventricles out of proportion to sulcal enlargement.
Question 3327Question →

A 27-year-old man is evaluated in the clinic for severe anxiety and sleep disturbances. Three months ago, he survived a severe house fire in which he sustained extensive burns to his right lower extremity. The burns were complicated by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) osteomyelitis, for which he is currently in the second week of a 6-week course of oral linezolid. He reports that for the past two months, he has been having intense nightmares about the fire and frequently wakes up drenched in sweat. He actively avoids cooking or being near stoves and feels "on edge" most of the day. During the interview, a loud siren sounds outside; he suddenly drops to the floor, covers his head, and appears briefly unresponsive to the physician's voice, vividly reliving the fire. He has no previous psychiatric history. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Referral for trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy

Answer

Referral for trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy
The correct answer is referral for trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy. This patient meets the criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), presenting with intrusive symptoms (nightmares, dissociative flashbacks), avoidance behavior, and hyperarousal lasting for more than one month following a life-threatening event. The first-line treatments for PTSD include trauma-focused psychotherapy (e.g., cognitive processing therapy, prolonged exposure) and pharmacotherapy with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). However, this patient is currently taking linezolid. Linezolid is an oxazolidinone antibiotic that also functions as a reversible, non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Coadministration of linezolid with serotonergic agents (like SSRIs or SNRIs) is strictly contraindicated because it can precipitate serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by autonomic instability, altered mental status, and neuromuscular hyperactivity. Therefore, non-pharmacological treatment with trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy is the safest and most appropriate first-line intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the patient's psychiatric condition based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), evidenced by trauma exposure greater than 1 month ago, nightmares (intrusions), avoidance of triggers, hyperarousal, and dissociative flashbacks.
Accurate diagnosis is required to select the correct treatment algorithm.
2
Identify the patient's current medical treatments and potential contraindications.
The patient is taking linezolid for MRSA osteomyelitis. Linezolid is an oxazolidinone antibiotic with reversible, non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) properties.
Psychiatric pharmacotherapy often interacts with systemic medical treatments.
3
Select the most appropriate first-line treatment for PTSD that avoids dangerous drug interactions.
First-line treatments for PTSD include SSRIs, SNRIs, and trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (TF-CBT). Because linezolid acts as an MAOI, adding an SSRI or SNRI is contraindicated due to the risk of serotonin syndrome. Therefore, TF-CBT is the best next step.
Maximizes therapeutic efficacy while preventing life-threatening pharmacological interactions.

Key Concept

Patients with PTSD who are taking medications with MAOI activity (such as the antibiotic linezolid) must not be prescribed serotonergic agents (SSRIs, SNRIs) due to the risk of serotonin syndrome; trauma-focused psychotherapy is the treatment of choice in these cases.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3328Question →

Match each patient's clinical presentation with the underlying histopathologic or pathophysiologic finding most likely responsible for her condition.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 31-year-old nulliparous female presents with spontaneous, bloody, unilateral discharge from the left nipple. Physical examination reveals no palpable breast masses or axillary lymphadenopathy.
A 19-year-old college student notices a smooth, rubbery, highly mobile, 3-cm nodule in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast that becomes tender just before menstruation.
A 53-year-old patient is evaluated for a new, firm, fixed breast lump with localized skin dimpling. She recalls severe bruising in the same area following a mountain biking accident four months ago.
A 58-year-old postmenopausal woman develops rapid-onset erythema, warmth, and diffuse pitting edema over the lower half of her left breast without an accompanying fever or leukocytosis.

Matches

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Answer

The clinical presentations correctly correspond to their respective underlying pathologies: the spontaneous bloody discharge is due to a fibrovascular core proliferation (intraductal papilloma); the mobile mass in a young woman is a stromal and epithelial proliferation (fibroadenoma); the post-traumatic fixed mass is adipocyte saponification with macrophages (fat necrosis); and the acute peau d'orange is dermal lymphatic obstruction (inflammatory breast cancer).
Each clinical vignette provides classic epidemiological and physical exam findings that directly correlate with specific histopathologic mechanisms of breast disease.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the 31-year-old patient with spontaneous, unilateral, bloody nipple discharge and no palpable mass.
Identify the presentation as highly suspicious for an intraductal papilloma.
Intraductal papillomas classically present with bloody or serosanguineous discharge and are characterized by a benign fibrovascular core lined by ductal epithelium.
2
Assess the 19-year-old patient with a smooth, mobile, rubbery breast mass that fluctuates with the menstrual cycle.
Diagnose a probable fibroadenoma.
Fibroadenomas are the most common benign breast masses in young women, composed of proliferating glandular epithelial structures and cellular stroma.
3
Analyze the 53-year-old patient's firm, fixed breast mass with skin dimpling following focal trauma.
Correlate the traumatic history and skin dimpling with fat necrosis.
Fat necrosis often mimics malignancy clinically but histologically shows saponification of fat, lipid-laden macrophages, and a giant cell reaction.
4
Examine the 58-year-old patient with rapid-onset erythema, warmth, and peau d'orange without infectious symptoms.
Recognize the classic signs of inflammatory breast cancer.
Inflammatory breast cancer presents with rapid breast swelling and peau d'orange due to neoplastic cells invading and obstructing the dermal lymphatic channels.

Key Concept

Pathophysiology and clinical presentation of common benign and malignant breast disorders.
Question 3329Question →

During a routine telehealth appointment, a 28-year-old marketing executive describes a 6-week history of worsening dysphoria, profound anhedonia, and debilitating fatigue. She reports sleeping up to 12 hours a day and experiencing a 5-kg (11-lb) weight gain over this period. The patient expresses excessive guilt over her recent decline in work performance. She has no significant past medical history and does not consume alcohol or illicit substances. The physician considers initiating pharmacotherapy with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Elicit a history of distinct periods featuring unusually elevated mood and decreased need for sleep

Answer

Elicit a history of distinct periods featuring unusually elevated mood and decreased need for sleep
The most critical next step is to screen for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes. This patient presents with a major depressive episode, characterized by atypical features (hypersomnia, weight gain, profound fatigue). However, bipolar depression and unipolar depression cannot be reliably distinguished based solely on current depressive symptoms. Because a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder requires that there has never been a manic or hypomanic episode, the clinician must explicitly ask about past periods of elevated mood, impulsivity, and decreased need for sleep. Initiating antidepressant monotherapy in a patient with unrecognized bipolar disorder carries a significant risk of precipitating a manic or hypomanic episode (manic switch).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation.
The patient meets criteria for a major depressive episode (dysphoria, anhedonia, fatigue, hypersomnia, weight gain, guilt for 6 weeks).
Establishing the current syndrome is the first step in psychiatric diagnosis.
2
Determine the differential diagnosis.
The presentation could represent Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) or the depressed phase of Bipolar Disorder.
Unipolar and bipolar depression present identically during an acute depressive episode.
3
Identify the critical pre-treatment evaluation step.
Screening for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes is required.
A diagnosis of MDD requires the absence of any past manic or hypomanic episodes. Prescribing an SSRI to a patient with unrecognized bipolar disorder can precipitate a manic switch.

Key Concept

Before diagnosing Major Depressive Disorder and initiating antidepressant therapy, clinicians must screen for a lifetime history of manic or hypomanic episodes to rule out Bipolar Disorder and prevent antidepressant-induced mania.
Question 3330Question →

An addiction medicine consultation team is reviewing multiple complex patient cases in the emergency department involving suspected acute intoxications. Match each distinct clinical presentation to the most likely responsible substance.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)
Synthetic cathinones
Gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB)
Dextromethorphan (DXM)

Matches

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Answer

MDMA matches with bruxism/hyponatremia; Synthetic cathinones match with prolonged delirium; GHB matches with rapid coma/awakening; Dextromethorphan matches with dissociative state/false-positive PCP.
Each substance produces a unique clinical toxidrome: MDMA is distinguished by hyponatremia and bruxism; synthetic cathinones by a remarkably prolonged severe agitated delirium; GHB by a deep but very brief coma; and DXM by dissociation and potential PCP cross-reactivity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical features associated with MDMA intoxication.
MDMA causes empathogenic effects, bruxism, hyperthermia, and uniquely, hyponatremia.
Identifying the specific serotonergic toxidrome allows matching it to the sociability/hyponatremia presentation.
2
Evaluate the presentation of synthetic cathinone intoxication.
Bath salts cause severe sympathomimetic toxidrome with an exceptionally prolonged delirium or psychosis lasting several days.
Differentiating bath salts from standard amphetamines or cocaine relies on the extended duration of delirium and the lack of detection on standard drug screens.
3
Assess the clinical course of GHB overdose.
GHB toxicity is characterized by rapid, deep CNS depression that resolves abruptly.
This distinct kinetic profile matches the presentation of sudden coma followed by sudden, unpredictable awakening.
4
Review the toxidrome of high-dose dextromethorphan.
High-dose DXM acts as an NMDA antagonist, causing dissociation, nystagmus, and ataxia, and can cross-react on UDS.
This pharmacological profile matches the dissociative presentation that may trigger a false-positive PCP screen.

Key Concept

Differentiating the unique acute toxidromes and clinical kinetics of specific illicit substances and over-the-counter drugs of abuse.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3331Question →

A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit for an acute exacerbation of schizoaffective disorder. During the evening shift, she becomes increasingly distressed, claiming that the nursing station is broadcasting her thoughts. She begins throwing plastic cups across the hallway and screaming at the staff to stop the broadcast. She is hypervigilant, visibly tense, and standing defensively in the hallway corner, but she has not attacked anyone. Arrange the following interventions in the most appropriate stepwise escalation sequence for managing this patient's acute agitation, starting with the initial preferred step.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct stepwise escalation protocol for acute agitation begins with verbal de-escalation, followed by offering voluntary oral medications, then administering involuntary intramuscular medications, and finally applying physical restraints as a last resort.
The management of acute agitation in a psychiatric setting strictly adheres to the principle of using the least restrictive means possible. The protocol escalates sequentially: it begins with verbal de-escalation techniques to calm the patient collaboratively. If unsuccessful, the next step is offering voluntary oral medications, which allows the patient to maintain autonomy. If the patient refuses and agitation escalates to a dangerous level, involuntary intramuscular medication (chemical restraint) is administered. Physical restraints are the most restrictive and dangerous intervention, carrying significant risks of trauma and injury, and must only be used as a last resort when there is an imminent threat to physical safety that cannot be managed otherwise.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the immediate safety risk and the patient's current level of violence.
The patient is highly agitated, distressed, and throwing non-lethal objects, but has not committed acts of physical violence against others.
This assessment determines if immediate physical restraint is necessary. Since there is no imminent threat of severe physical harm, less restrictive measures must be used first.
2
Identify the least restrictive initial intervention.
Verbal de-escalation is identified as the required first step.
The standard of psychiatric care dictates starting with non-coercive, least restrictive measures to respect patient autonomy and prevent unnecessary trauma.
3
Determine the proper sequence for pharmacological intervention if verbal methods fail.
Voluntary oral medication must be offered before involuntary intramuscular medication is administered.
Voluntary intake of medication is less restrictive and less traumatic than an involuntary injection, aligning with the principle of least restrictive means.
4
Identify the intervention of last resort in the escalation protocol.
Physical restraints are placed at the very end of the sequence.
Physical restraints carry the highest risk of injury, asphyxiation, and profound psychological trauma, and are strictly reserved for situations of imminent physical danger.

Key Concept

Stepwise escalation protocol and the principle of least restrictive means in managing acute psychiatric agitation
Question 3332Question →

A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. She states that her sleep problems began after a stressful period at work but have persisted despite the stress resolving. She reports daytime fatigue that is noticeably affecting her job performance. She has no other medical conditions and takes no medications. Arrange the following steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for the standard clinical management of this patient's condition.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence for managing chronic insomnia is to first assess sleep patterns objectively using a sleep diary, then initiate Cognitive Behavioral Therapy for Insomnia (CBT-I) as first-line treatment, consider short-term nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics only if CBT-I is ineffective, and finally taper any medications to avoid physical dependence and rebound symptoms.
The standard stepwise approach to chronic insomnia begins with a thorough clinical assessment using a sleep diary. This is followed by the first-line treatment, Cognitive Behavioral Therapy for Insomnia (CBT-I). Pharmacotherapy (such as nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics, dual orexin receptor antagonists, or melatonin agonists) is reserved for cases refractory to CBT-I and should only be used short-term. When discontinuing these medications, they must be gradually tapered to prevent rebound insomnia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's likely diagnosis based on the clinical vignette.
The patient has chronic insomnia disorder (symptoms > 3 months, causing daytime impairment, not explained by other conditions).
Establishing the correct diagnosis dictates the appropriate stepwise treatment algorithm.
2
Determine the initial assessment and diagnostic steps.
A sleep diary is the standard initial tool to quantify sleep latency, wake after sleep onset, and total sleep time.
Objective tracking is necessary to guide behavioral therapy and measure clinical progress.
3
Identify the recommended first-line therapy.
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy for Insomnia (CBT-I) is selected as the primary intervention.
Guidelines recommend CBT-I as the initial treatment due to its sustained efficacy and lack of side effects compared to medications.
4
Determine the role of pharmacotherapy.
Medications (like nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics) are reserved for patients who do not respond adequately to CBT-I.
Sleep medications carry risks of dependence, tolerance, and adverse effects, especially with prolonged use.
5
Identify the protocol for discontinuing pharmacotherapy.
Medications must be carefully tapered rather than stopped abruptly.
Abrupt cessation of hypnotics typically causes severe rebound insomnia, which can perpetuate the cycle of sleep anxiety and medication reliance.

Key Concept

The standard clinical management of chronic insomnia emphasizes objective assessment followed by targeted behavioral interventions (CBT-I) before considering short-term pharmacological therapies.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3333Question →

A 27-year-old male actor comes to the clinic for a routine evaluation prior to starting filming for a new movie. Over the past 5 months, he has purposefully lost 14 kg14 \text{ kg} (30.8 lb30.8 \text{ lb}) by restricting his caloric intake to fewer than 500 kcal/day500 \text{ kcal/day} and engaging in strenuous cardiovascular exercise for 3 hours daily. He states, "I have to look absolutely emaciated for this role, but I feel so weak and dizzy when I stand up." He strongly denies binge eating, self-induced vomiting, or the use of laxatives or diuretics. His body mass index is 16.2 kg/m216.2 \text{ kg/m}^2. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg and a heart rate of 48/min. Physical examination reveals temporal wasting, dry skin, and fine, downy hair on his upper back.

Laboratory studies show:

TestResultReference Range
Sodium139 mEq/L139 \text{ mEq/L}136−145 mEq/L136-145 \text{ mEq/L}
Potassium3.4 mEq/L3.4 \text{ mEq/L}3.5−5.0 mEq/L3.5-5.0 \text{ mEq/L}
Chloride104 mEq/L104 \text{ mEq/L}95−105 mEq/L95-105 \text{ mEq/L}
Bicarbonate15 mEq/L15 \text{ mEq/L}22−28 mEq/L22-28 \text{ mEq/L}
Blood urea nitrogen28 mg/dL28 \text{ mg/dL}7−18 mg/dL7-18 \text{ mg/dL}
Creatinine1.0 mg/dL1.0 \text{ mg/dL}0.6−1.2 mg/dL0.6-1.2 \text{ mg/dL}
Glucose62 mg/dL62 \text{ mg/dL}70−99 mg/dL70-99 \text{ mg/dL}

Arterial blood gas (room air):

ParameterResultReference Range
pH7.307.307.35−7.457.35-7.45
pCO230 mm Hg30 \text{ mm Hg}33−45 mm Hg33-45 \text{ mm Hg}
pO296 mm Hg96 \text{ mm Hg}75−105 mm Hg75-105 \text{ mm Hg}

Which of the following best describes this patient's primary acid-base disturbance and its underlying etiology?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: High anion gap metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation secondary to starvation ketosis

Answer

The patient has a high anion gap metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation secondary to starvation ketosis.
The correct answer identifies a high anion gap metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation due to starvation ketosis. The patient is acidemic (pH = 7.30) with a primary metabolic acidosis (bicarbonate = 15 mEq/L). The anion gap is elevated at 20 mEq/L (139−(104+15)=20139 - (104 + 15) = 20), confirming a high anion gap metabolic acidosis. In the setting of severe caloric restriction, this is caused by starvation ketosis (accumulation of beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate). To check for a mixed disorder, Winter's formula is applied: Expected pCO2=1.5(HCO3)+8±2\text{Expected pCO}_2 = 1.5(HCO_3) + 8 \pm 2. For this patient, Expected pCO2=1.5(15)+8±2=30.5±2\text{Expected pCO}_2 = 1.5(15) + 8 \pm 2 = 30.5 \pm 2, meaning the expected pCO2 range is 28.5 to 32.5 mm Hg. The patient's actual pCO2 of 30 mm Hg falls squarely within this range, indicating appropriate physiological respiratory compensation without any concurrent primary respiratory disorder.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation.
The patient has anorexia nervosa, restricting subtype, with severe caloric restriction, hypoglycemia, and signs of profound malnutrition.
Identifying the severe fasting state points toward starvation ketosis as the likely metabolic derangement.
2
Evaluate the primary acid-base disturbance.
The pH of 7.30 indicates acidemia, and the low bicarbonate of 15 mEq/L confirms a primary metabolic acidosis.
The initial step in acid-base analysis is determining the primary disorder using pH and bicarbonate levels.
3
Calculate the serum anion gap.
AG=Na−(Cl+HCO3)=139−(104+15)=20 mEq/LAG = Na - (Cl + HCO_3) = 139 - (104 + 15) = 20 \text{ mEq/L}.
Categorizing the metabolic acidosis as high or normal anion gap narrows the differential diagnosis. A gap of 20 is elevated.
4
Calculate the expected respiratory compensation using Winter's formula.
Expected pCO2=1.5(HCO3)+8±2=1.5(15)+8±2=30.5±2 mm Hg\text{Expected pCO}_2 = 1.5(HCO_3) + 8 \pm 2 = 1.5(15) + 8 \pm 2 = 30.5 \pm 2 \text{ mm Hg}.
To determine if a secondary respiratory acid-base disorder is present, the expected pCO2 must be compared to the actual pCO2.
5
Synthesize the findings.
The actual pCO2 of 30 mm Hg is within the expected range of 28.5 to 32.5 mm Hg, confirming appropriate respiratory compensation without a concurrent primary respiratory disorder.
Integrating the laboratory calculations with the clinical context provides the final diagnosis.

Key Concept

Evaluation of acid-base disturbances in eating disorders requires calculating the anion gap and Winter's formula to differentiate between starvation ketosis, laxative abuse, and vomiting.
Question 3334Question →

A 38-year-old male software engineer is evaluated in the clinic for worsening mood. He reports feeling profoundly sad, having no energy, sleeping up to 14 hours a day, and gaining 4.5 kg (10 lb) over the past 6 weeks. His husband notes that the patient has been unable to concentrate on his work and frequently expresses feelings of worthlessness. The patient has no other medical conditions and currently takes no medications. A review of his medical records reveals a psychiatric hospitalization three years ago for a 10-day episode characterized by an abnormally elevated mood, a decreased need for sleep (averaging 2 hours per night), pressured speech, and reckless financial investments that led to personal bankruptcy. His vital signs and physical examination today are unremarkable. Which of the following are appropriate pharmacological interventions for this patient's current condition? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate treatment with lurasidone; Initiate treatment with quetiapine; Initiate treatment with lithium

Answer

The appropriate pharmacological interventions for this patient are initiating treatment with lurasidone, quetiapine, or lithium.
The patient is experiencing an acute depressive episode in the context of Bipolar I Disorder, which is diagnosed based on his current presentation and a history of a severe manic episode that required hospitalization. The standard of care for acute bipolar depression includes initiating a mood stabilizer (such as lithium) or specific second-generation antipsychotics (such as quetiapine or lurasidone). These agents are favored because they have proven efficacy in treating the depressive phase of bipolar disorder without a significant risk of inducing a manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the current presenting symptoms.
The patient exhibits profound sadness, hypersomnia, weight gain, anhedonia, and poor concentration lasting for 6 weeks, which meets the criteria for a major depressive episode.
Identifying the current phase of the mood disorder is essential to selecting the right intervention.
2
Review the patient's psychiatric history.
The patient has a history of a 10-day episode involving elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and reckless behavior requiring hospitalization, establishing a past manic episode.
A history of a manic episode changes the diagnosis from Major Depressive Disorder to Bipolar I Disorder, fundamentally altering the treatment protocol.
3
Select appropriate pharmacological therapies for acute bipolar depression.
First-line treatments for acute bipolar depression include specific second-generation antipsychotics (quetiapine, lurasidone) and mood stabilizers (lithium, valproate).
These medications effectively treat depressive symptoms in bipolar patients without carrying the high risk of inducing a manic switch that is associated with antidepressant monotherapy.

Key Concept

The management of acute bipolar depression requires mood stabilizers or specific second-generation antipsychotics, explicitly avoiding antidepressant monotherapy due to the risk of precipitating a manic switch.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3335Question →

A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department after her roommate called emergency services. The roommate reported that the patient threatened to 'jump off the balcony' following a breakup with her boyfriend of one month. During the interview, the patient is calm and states, 'I did not actually mean it. I just wanted him to realize how much pain he caused me.' She says her boyfriend was 'the most perfect man ever' until yesterday, when she realized he is 'a complete monster.' The roommate notes that the patient has a history of impulsive spending, intense mood swings that typically last for a few hours, and a chronic feeling of emptiness. The patient mentions that when she gets extremely stressed, she sometimes hears a muffled voice calling her name, but this goes away quickly once she calms down. Her medical history includes atypical depression, for which she currently takes phenelzine. She asks the physician, 'Please do not tell my workplace about this visit; I told my manager I had a severe migraine.' The patient has no current suicidal ideation or plan.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Discharge the patient and provide a referral for dialectical behavior therapy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to discharge the patient and provide a referral for outpatient dialectical behavior therapy.
The patient's presentation is highly characteristic of borderline personality disorder (BPD). Key features include frantic efforts to avoid abandonment (threatening suicide after a breakup), unstable relationships with splitting (alternating between extreme idealization and devaluation of her boyfriend), impulsivity (spending), affective instability with mood swings lasting a few hours, chronic feelings of emptiness, and transient, stress-related psychotic symptoms (briefly hearing a voice). Given that she has no active suicidal ideation or plan and was making threats primarily to elicit a response, she does not meet the criteria for involuntary psychiatric hospitalization. The most appropriate next step is to discharge her and refer her for dialectical behavior therapy (DBT), which is the first-line evidence-based psychotherapy for BPD.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's interpersonal behavior and affective symptoms.
The patient exhibits frantic efforts to avoid abandonment, splitting (idealizing then devaluing her boyfriend), impulsivity, affective instability, and feelings of emptiness.
Identifying these key features is necessary to diagnose borderline personality disorder (BPD).
2
Evaluate the patient's psychotic symptoms and timeline.
The auditory hallucinations are brief and strictly stress-related, ruling out a primary psychotic disorder like schizophreniform disorder.
Differentiating between transient stress-induced psychosis in BPD and primary psychotic disorders dictates the appropriate treatment pathway.
3
Assess the patient's safety risk.
The patient made a suicidal threat but currently denies any active suicidal ideation or plan, stating she did it to elicit a reaction.
Determining the level of danger to self or others establishes whether involuntary psychiatric admission is required.
4
Determine the appropriate management plan based on the diagnosis and safety assessment.
The patient is safe for discharge. The most effective long-term treatment for BPD is dialectical behavior therapy.
Since acute inpatient care is not indicated, establishing appropriate evidence-based outpatient psychotherapy is the correct intervention.

Key Concept

Borderline personality disorder is characterized by unstable relationships, impulsivity, affective instability, and transient stress-related paranoia or dissociation; management in the absence of active suicidal ideation involves outpatient dialectical behavior therapy.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3336Question →

A 29-year-old woman presents to the outpatient psychiatry clinic accompanied by her husband, 4 weeks after delivering a healthy full-term infant. She reports severe, exhausting anxiety and highly distressing, recurrent images of accidentally drowning her baby while giving him a bath. She is horrified by these images, recognizes them as irrational, and states, 'I would never hurt my child, but my brain keeps flashing this terrible picture.' Consequently, she refuses to bathe the baby and frequently checks the crib to ensure the baby is breathing, sometimes up to 20 times an hour.

Her psychiatric history is notable for a hospitalization at age 20 during which she experienced a 3-week period of decreased need for sleep, rapid pressured speech, and grandiose spending. She was diagnosed with a mood disorder at that time but discontinued all medications five years ago. Currently, she exhibits no signs of elevated mood, hallucinations, or delusions. She is exclusively breastfeeding.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Refer the patient for cognitive-behavioral therapy incorporating exposure and response prevention

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to refer the patient for cognitive-behavioral therapy incorporating exposure and response prevention.
The patient's clinical presentation—intrusive, distressing images of harming her infant combined with checking and avoidance behaviors—is classic for postpartum Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD). Because she has full insight and her thoughts are ego-dystonic, she does not have postpartum psychosis. First-line treatments for OCD include serotonergic antidepressants and cognitive-behavioral therapy featuring exposure and response prevention (ERP). However, her history of a manic episode (hospitalization for decreased sleep, rapid speech, and grandiosity) indicates underlying Bipolar I Disorder. In such patients, administering an SSRI without a mood stabilizer carries a high risk of inducing a manic switch. Therefore, ERP is the most appropriate next step, as it provides definitive treatment for the OCD while avoiding pharmacologic risks to both the mother (manic switch) and the breastfed infant.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric presentation.
The patient has highly distressing, intrusive thoughts of harming her infant, coupled with compulsive checking and avoidance behaviors. She retains insight and is horrified by the thoughts.
These symptoms are characteristic of ego-dystonic obsessions and compulsions, confirming a diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) with postpartum onset.
2
Differentiate the presentation from postpartum psychosis and assess safety.
Unlike postpartum psychosis, the patient's reality testing is intact. She has no intent to harm the infant and takes protective measures. She does not pose an imminent danger.
This rules out the need for involuntary hospitalization, breaking confidentiality to call child protective services, or prescribing antipsychotics for a primary psychotic disorder.
3
Evaluate the patient's past psychiatric history.
The patient had a previous 3-week episode of decreased sleep, rapid speech, and grandiosity requiring hospitalization.
This meets the criteria for a manic episode, establishing a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.
4
Determine the safest and most effective management strategy.
While SSRIs are typically first-line for OCD, monotherapy in a patient with Bipolar I Disorder risks inducing a manic switch. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (specifically exposure and response prevention) is highly effective.
Psychotherapy avoids the risks of pharmacologic mood destabilization and prevents medication exposure to the nursing infant.

Key Concept

Management of postpartum Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) in patients with a history of Bipolar Disorder
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3337Question →

Match each patient's clinical presentation with the most accurate DSM-5 diagnosis based on the primary motivation for their symptoms or avoidance behavior.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 30-year-old avoids subways and crowded concerts because she fears escape would be difficult or help unavailable if she were to suddenly lose bladder control.
A 25-year-old avoids subways because he is intensely preoccupied with the belief that other passengers are observing his movements and judging him.
A 28-year-old avoids subways due to intrusive thoughts about contracting an infectious disease, which cause severe anxiety relieved only by repetitive hand sanitization.
A 40-year-old avoids all air travel due to an extreme fear triggered exclusively by airplanes, but comfortably takes subways and buses without distress.
A 35-year-old has recurrent, unexpected episodes of intense autonomic arousal. She does not avoid public places but worries daily about having another episode.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The diagnoses are matched by identifying the underlying cognitive driver for each patient's distress: Agoraphobia involves fear of being trapped; Social Anxiety Disorder involves fear of scrutiny; OCD involves intrusive thoughts and compulsions; Specific Phobia involves an isolated situational trigger; and Panic Disorder involves unexpected attacks with anticipatory worry.
Each diagnosis in the DSM-5 anxiety and obsessive-compulsive spectrum is distinguished not merely by the presence of anxiety or avoidance, but by the specific cognitive etiology driving that behavior. Identifying whether avoidance stems from a fear of entrapment (Agoraphobia), fear of judgment (Social Anxiety), obsessions (OCD), or specific objects/situations (Specific Phobia) allows for precise diagnostic matching.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the underlying motivation for avoidance or distress in each clinical vignette.
Identified core fears such as inability to escape, negative evaluation, contamination, isolated situational triggers, or fear of future unprovoked panic attacks.
Different psychiatric disorders can present with identical surface behaviors (e.g., avoiding subways or crowds), making the underlying cognitive driver essential for accurate diagnosis.
2
Map each core fear to the corresponding DSM-5 diagnostic criteria.
Matched fear of trapped situations to Agoraphobia, fear of scrutiny to Social Anxiety Disorder, obsessions to OCD, specific situational trigger to Specific Phobia, and unexpected attacks with worry to Panic Disorder.
Ensures accurate differentiation between highly overlapping anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and trauma-related disorders.

Key Concept

Differentiating anxiety and related disorders based on the core cognitive driver and motivation for avoidance behavior.
Question 3338Question →

A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic for a routine psychiatric evaluation. He was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia and has been experiencing auditory hallucinations. During the interview, he becomes visibly angry and states, "The voices are telling me that my neighbor is an undercover agent trying to destroy me. I am going to buy a gun today and shoot him when he gets home." The patient has no previous history of violence but is adamant about his plan. He refuses voluntary admission to the hospital and attempts to leave the clinic. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Arrange for involuntary psychiatric admission, and notify both law enforcement and the neighbor.

Answer

Arrange for involuntary psychiatric admission, and notify both law enforcement and the neighbor.
The correct answer involves securing the patient and warning the intended victim. When a patient makes a specific, credible threat of physical violence against an identifiable third party, physicians have a legal and ethical obligation known as the 'duty to protect' (often referred to as the Tarasoff rule). Because this patient has a clear plan, the means to carry it out (intent to buy a gun today), and a specific target (the neighbor), he poses an imminent risk. The physician must breach confidentiality to warn the intended victim and notify law enforcement. Furthermore, because the patient is an imminent danger to others and refuses voluntary admission, he meets the clinical and legal criteria for involuntary psychiatric hospitalization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the nature of the patient's threat.
The patient has made a specific, credible, and imminent threat of violence against an identifiable victim (the neighbor).
Determining if a threat is specific and imminent is the essential first step in assessing homicide risk.
2
Determine the legal and ethical obligations regarding confidentiality.
The situation triggers the 'duty to protect' (often referred to as the Tarasoff ruling).
Physicians are legally and ethically obligated to breach confidentiality when a patient poses a serious risk of violence to a specific, identifiable third party.
3
Select the most appropriate clinical and legal management.
The patient must be involuntarily hospitalized due to being an imminent danger to others, and both the police and the intended victim must be warned.
Involuntary hospitalization secures the immediate safety of the public, while warning the victim and police explicitly fulfills the legal duty to protect.

Key Concept

When a patient presents a serious danger of violence to a specific, identifiable third party, physicians have a legal duty to protect the intended victim by warning them, notifying law enforcement, and taking necessary steps to secure the patient (e.g., involuntary hospitalization).
Question 3339Question →

A 2828-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his partner due to worsening lethargy and near-syncope. Over the past year, he has severely restricted his dietary intake and exercises intensely for 33 hours daily, expressing a profound fear of gaining weight. Physical examination reveals temporal wasting and lanugo over his trunk. Temperature is 35.2∘C35.2^\circ\text{C} (95.4∘F95.4^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg82/50 \text{ mm Hg}, pulse is 38/min38\text{/min}, and respirations are 12/min12\text{/min}. His body mass index is 12.4 kg/m212.4 \text{ kg/m}^2. Electrocardiogram reveals sinus bradycardia with a prolonged QTc interval. Initial laboratory studies show:

Laboratory testResult
Potassium2.7 mEq/L2.7 \text{ mEq/L}
Magnesium1.2 mEq/L1.2 \text{ mEq/L}
Phosphorus1.8 mg/dL1.8 \text{ mg/dL}

Arrange the following clinical management steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for this patient.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is: Admit to an inpatient medical telemetry unit → Administer intravenous electrolyte replacement → Initiate gradual enteral caloric rehabilitation → Transfer to an inpatient psychiatric eating disorder unit → Commence outpatient cognitive-behavioral therapy.
Patients with severe anorexia nervosa presenting with profound malnutrition, vital sign instability, and electrolyte abnormalities require a sequential step-up to step-down approach. The first priority is preventing sudden cardiac death. The presence of severe bradycardia, hypotension, and QTc prolongation mandates immediate admission to a medical unit with continuous cardiac telemetry. Second, profound electrolyte deficits (hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypophosphatemia) must be aggressively corrected. If caloric rehabilitation is initiated before correcting these deficits, the resulting insulin surge will drive remaining electrolytes intracellularly, triggering fatal refeeding syndrome. Third, once electrolytes are being supplemented, gradual enteral caloric rehabilitation is initiated with strict monitoring. Fourth, when the patient becomes medically stable (normal vital signs, stable electrolytes on oral supplementation), they are transferred to an inpatient psychiatric unit specialized in eating disorders to continue supervised weight restoration and begin intensive behavioral therapy. Finally, upon achieving a safe weight and demonstrating sufficient behavioral control, the patient is discharged to initiate outpatient cognitive-behavioral therapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's medical stability and triage setting.
The patient has severe bradycardia (38/min38\text{/min}), hypotension (82/50 mm Hg82/50 \text{ mm Hg}), prolonged QTc, BMI <15 kg/m2< 15 \text{ kg/m}^2, and profound electrolyte derangements.
These critical findings indicate impending cardiovascular collapse. The patient requires immediate inpatient medical admission with cardiac telemetry, rather than direct psychiatric admission.
2
Determine the priority of interventions upon medical admission.
Intravenous electrolyte replacement must precede or accompany the very initiation of nutritional rehabilitation.
The patient already has hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypokalemia. Introducing calories (especially carbohydrates) without correcting these will precipitate refeeding syndrome, causing severe intracellular shifts of phosphorus and potassium, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias.
3
Plan the long-term treatment pathway once medical stability is achieved.
Transfer to a psychiatric eating disorder unit, followed by outpatient psychotherapy.
Medical floors stabilize acute physiology but do not adequately treat the underlying eating disorder. Once hemodynamically and metabolically stable, intensive inpatient psychiatric care is required for weight restoration protocols, eventually transitioning to outpatient cognitive-behavioral therapy to prevent relapse.

Key Concept

Management of severe anorexia nervosa requires immediate medical stabilization (telemetry, electrolyte correction) to prevent refeeding syndrome and arrhythmias, followed by gradual nutritional rehabilitation, and subsequently transitioning to psychiatric step-down care.
Question 3340Question →

Match each distinct clinical presentation with the most likely underlying neurocognitive etiology.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Recurrent, well-formed visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognition, and spontaneous features of parkinsonism.
Prominent changes in personality, behavioral disinhibition, hyperorality, and relative sparing of memory in the early stages.
Stepwise cognitive decline, prominent executive dysfunction, and evidence of focal neurological deficits on examination.
Rapidly progressive dementia over weeks to months, accompanied by startle myoclonus and periodic sharp wave complexes on EEG.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The clinical presentations map to their respective etiologies based on core diagnostic features: hallucinations and parkinsonism match with Lewy body disease; behavioral changes and hyperorality match with frontotemporal dementia; stepwise decline matches with vascular dementia; and rapid progression with myoclonus matches with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
Each neurocognitive disorder presents with a distinct constellation of early symptoms and temporal progression patterns that allow for accurate clinical differentiation prior to neuropathological examination.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the presentation featuring visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognition, and parkinsonism.
This maps to Major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies.
These three symptoms constitute the core clinical criteria required for the diagnosis of Dementia with Lewy bodies.
2
Evaluate the presentation featuring early personality changes, disinhibition, and hyperorality.
This maps to Frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder.
These are the hallmark behavioral symptoms of the behavioral variant of frontotemporal dementia (Pick disease).
3
Evaluate the presentation featuring a stepwise cognitive decline and focal neurological deficits.
This maps to Vascular neurocognitive disorder.
Stepwise decline is characteristic of multi-infarct dementia, where each new microvascular or macrovascular event causes an abrupt drop in cognitive function.
4
Evaluate the presentation featuring rapid progression over weeks to months, accompanied by myoclonus.
This maps to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
The extremely rapid timeline and the presence of startle myoclonus, confirmed by sharp waves on EEG, are classic pathognomonic signs of this prion disease.

Key Concept

Differentiating major neurocognitive disorders based on core clinical features and temporal progression.
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