Psychiatry

814 questions

Question 141Question →

A 20-year-old man presents to the university health clinic complaining of excessive daytime sleepiness that has progressively worsened over the past 8 months. He reports struggling to stay awake during lectures and has fallen asleep several times while eating meals. The patient also describes episodes where he suddenly loses muscle tone in his knees when he hears a funny joke, causing him to occasionally fall to the floor. He remains fully awake and aware of his surroundings during these brief events. Additionally, he mentions seeing vivid, frightening shadows in his room just before he falls asleep at night. He has no past medical history, does not use illicit drugs, and takes no medications. Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Narcolepsy

Answer

The most likely diagnosis is narcolepsy.
The correct diagnosis is narcolepsy. This patient presents with excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy (sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by laughter), and hypnagogic hallucinations (vivid visual imagery occurring while falling asleep). These features form the classic clinical presentation of narcolepsy type 1, which is fundamentally caused by a deficiency of orexin (hypocretin) in the lateral hypothalamus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's primary complaint.
The patient has experienced severe excessive daytime sleepiness for 8 months.
To establish the core symptom of the sleep-wake disorder.
2
Identify specific associated symptoms triggered by emotion or sleep transition.
The patient experiences sudden loss of muscle tone with laughter (cataplexy) and visual hallucinations upon falling asleep (hypnagogic hallucinations).
To differentiate the condition from other causes of hypersomnia, such as depression or drug interactions.
3
Synthesize the clinical findings to formulate a diagnosis.
The combination of excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, and hypnagogic hallucinations is the classic triad for narcolepsy.
To select the correct diagnosis among the provided choices.

Key Concept

Narcolepsy type 1 is a sleep-wake disorder classically characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy (sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by strong emotions), hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis.
Question 142Question →

A 21-year-old female university student is brought to the emergency department by her roommate due to generalized weakness, muscle cramps, and a syncopal episode earlier that morning. The roommate mentions that the patient is under immense stress due to impending final exams. For the past year, the patient has drastically restricted her food intake during the day, but at night, she frequently consumes unusually large quantities of high-calorie foods, followed by prolonged periods in the bathroom with the water running. The patient recently visited the campus clinic for low mood and to get help quitting smoking; she was prescribed a new medication that she began taking two days ago.

Physical examination reveals a frail-appearing woman. Her BMI is 17.1 kg/m². Vital signs show a temperature of 36.3°C (97.3°F), blood pressure of 90/56 mm Hg, heart rate of 112/min while supine that increases to 138/min upon standing, and respiratory rate of 10/min. She has bilateral parotid gland enlargement, poor dentition with enamel erosion, and fine, downy hair over her back.

Laboratory studies show:
Laboratory TestResultReference Range
Sodium136 mEq/L136-145 mEq/L
Potassium2.6 mEq/L3.5-5.0 mEq/L
Chloride84 mEq/L95-105 mEq/L
Bicarbonate36 mEq/L22-28 mEq/L
Magnesium1.2 mg/dL1.7-2.2 mg/dL
An arterial blood gas on room air shows:
ParameterResultReference Range
pH7.517.35-7.45
pCO256 mm Hg35-45 mm Hg
pO292 mm Hg75-105 mm Hg

Based on the clinical and laboratory findings, which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding this patient's condition and management?

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Answer: The newly started medication for smoking cessation is strictly contraindicated in this patient as it drastically lowers the seizure threshold.

Answer

The correct statement is that the newly started smoking cessation medication (bupropion) is strictly contraindicated because it drastically lowers the seizure threshold in patients with eating disorders.
The newly prescribed medication for mood and smoking cessation is bupropion. Bupropion carries a dose-dependent risk of seizures and is absolutely contraindicated in patients with a history of anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa. These patients frequently have electrolyte derangements (such as the severe hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia seen in this patient) that independently lower the seizure threshold, making the combination highly dangerous.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the primary psychiatric condition based on clinical presentation and BMI.
The patient has anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging type.
She exhibits binge eating and purging behaviors, but her BMI is 17.1 kg/m² (underweight), which differentiates it from bulimia nervosa.
2
Identify the newly prescribed medication based on its indication.
The medication prescribed for smoking cessation and low mood is bupropion.
Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant uniquely indicated for both major depressive disorder and smoking cessation.
3
Evaluate the pharmacological safety of bupropion in this clinical context.
Bupropion is absolutely contraindicated.
It lowers the seizure threshold, which is highly dangerous in patients with purging behaviors who already have severe electrolyte abnormalities like hypokalemia.
4
Assess the arterial blood gas values to determine the exact acid-base disturbance.
The patient has a mixed metabolic alkalosis and respiratory acidosis.
Using the compensation formula, the expected pCO2 for an HCO3 of 36 is ~48 mm Hg. The actual pCO2 of 56 mm Hg indicates a concurrent respiratory acidosis.

Key Concept

Management of severe eating disorders requires recognizing pharmacological contraindications (e.g., bupropion causing seizures), correctly calculating mixed acid-base disorders, and avoiding refeeding syndrome.
Question 143Question →

A psychiatry resident is evaluating five different patients presenting with depressive symptoms in various clinical settings. Match each patient's clinical vignette with the most appropriate best next step in management or definitive diagnosis.

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Items

A 68-year-old male, recovering 3 weeks post-myocardial infarction, exhibits a 3-week history of persistently depressed mood, early morning awakenings, and loss of interest in his family.
A 42-year-old female with severe major depressive disorder has refused all food and water for 5 days, expressing steadfast delusions that her internal organs have turned to dust.
A 29-year-old male presents with severe depression and hypersomnia. His medical history includes a distinct 2-week period last year of decreased need for sleep, intense grandiosity, and reckless spending.
A 31-year-old female describes chronic low mood, fatigue, and poor self-esteem persisting for the past 3 years. These symptoms have never abated for more than a month at a time.
A 26-year-old female, 3 weeks postpartum, reports severe depression, crying spells, and intrusive, terrifying thoughts of intentionally drowning her newborn during bath time.

Matches

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Answer

Match each vignette to its specific targeted intervention: post-myocardial infarction depression requires sertraline; psychotic depression with starvation requires ECT; bipolar depression requires an atypical antipsychotic like lurasidone; chronic subthreshold depressive symptoms lasting over 2 years indicate persistent depressive disorder; and postpartum depression with infanticidal ideation demands immediate inpatient hospitalization.
Each patient presentation contains specific high-yield clinical clues that dictate a unique management pathway. Post-MI patients need cardiac-safe SSRIs (sertraline). Life-threatening psychotic depression requires rapid intervention (ECT). Bipolar depression must be treated with mood stabilizers or specific atypical antipsychotics (lurasidone) to avoid manic switching. Chronic low-grade depression is classified as persistent depressive disorder. Postpartum depression with infanticidal thoughts is an absolute indication for emergency psychiatric hospitalization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the 68-year-old male post-MI.
He has major depressive disorder. Sertraline is the safest SSRI for patients with recent cardiac events.
Sertraline avoids QTc prolongation and dangerous drug interactions commonly seen with other agents.
2
Evaluate the 42-year-old female refusing oral intake.
She has psychotic depression with life-threatening starvation. ECT is indicated.
ECT provides the most rapid response for life-threatening psychiatric emergencies when waiting for oral medications is too dangerous.
3
Evaluate the 29-year-old male with prior grandiosity and decreased sleep.
The history of mania indicates bipolar I disorder. Lurasidone is indicated.
Standard antidepressants can trigger manic switching in bipolar disorder and should be avoided as monotherapy.
4
Evaluate the 31-year-old female with 3 years of continuous mild depression.
The timeline and severity point to persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia).
Symptoms have lasted >2 years without a 2-month break and never met full major depressive episode criteria.
5
Evaluate the 26-year-old postpartum female with thoughts of harming her baby.
This is a psychiatric emergency requiring inpatient admission.
Active infanticidal ideation requires immediate action to ensure the infant's safety.

Key Concept

Management of Depressive Disorders across special populations requires tailoring therapy based on medical comorbidities, risk of self-harm or harm to others, and accurate differentiation from bipolar spectrum disorders.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 144Question →

A 2828-year-old woman with a history of severe bipolar I disorder presents to the clinic for an initial prenatal visit at 66 weeks gestation. She is currently stable on lithium carbonate and has not experienced a manic episode in 33 years. However, she has a history of life-threatening manic episodes with psychotic features whenever she has attempted to discontinue her medication in the past. She wishes to continue her pregnancy. Arrange the following steps in the optimal pharmacological and obstetric management of this patient in chronological order, from the first trimester through the immediate postpartum period.

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Answer

The correct sequence for managing a pregnant patient on lithium with severe bipolar disorder is: First, continue lithium and counsel on teratogenic risks at the initial visit; second, perform a fetal echocardiogram at 1818 to 2222 weeks; third, increase monitoring frequency to weekly in the third trimester; fourth, withhold lithium at the onset of active labor; and finally, resume the pre-pregnancy dose immediately postpartum.
The optimal management of a pregnant patient with severe bipolar I disorder on lithium involves a delicate chronological balance of teratogenic risk assessment and physiological changes. At 66 weeks gestation, the first step is to counsel the patient about the absolute risk of Ebstein anomaly and continue the medication, as abrupt discontinuation carries a catastrophic risk of relapse. During the second trimester (1818 to 2222 weeks), a targeted fetal echocardiogram must be ordered to screen for structural cardiac defects resulting from first-trimester exposure. As the pregnancy progresses into the third trimester, the maternal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and plasma volume reach peak levels, increasing lithium clearance; therefore, monitoring frequency must be increased to weekly, and the dose is often adjusted upward. At the onset of active labor, massive fluid shifts and potential dehydration can rapidly decrease lithium clearance and precipitate acute toxicity, requiring the medication to be temporarily withheld. Finally, immediately following delivery, maternal GFR normalizes rapidly. The patient must be quickly returned to her pre-pregnancy lithium dose to avoid toxicity from the higher third-trimester dose while providing critical prophylaxis against the extremely high risk of postpartum mania.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine first trimester management for severe bipolar disorder.
Counsel on the risk of Ebstein anomaly and continue the medication (item_1).
The absolute risk of Ebstein anomaly is relatively low (roughly 11 in 1,0001,000 to 11 in 2,0002,000), whereas a manic relapse off medication poses a severe threat to both mother and fetus.
2
Identify the appropriate obstetric screening for lithium exposure.
Schedule a targeted fetal echocardiogram (item_2).
Fetal cardiac development and structural anomalies caused by early lithium exposure can be optimally assessed between 1818 and 2222 weeks gestation.
3
Adjust management for late-pregnancy physiological changes.
Increase lithium monitoring to weekly in the third trimester (item_3).
Peak increases in maternal blood volume and glomerular filtration rate occur in the third trimester, leading to increased renal clearance of lithium and potential subtherapeutic levels.
4
Determine appropriate management during delivery.
Withhold lithium during active labor (item_4).
Massive fluid shifts, blood loss, and dehydration during labor can rapidly concentrate serum lithium, risking acute maternal toxicity.
5
Determine immediate postpartum management.
Resume the pre-pregnancy dose immediately after delivery (item_5).
Maternal GFR rapidly normalizes postpartum. Returning to the pre-pregnancy dose prevents toxicity while protecting against the very high risk of postpartum mania in bipolar I disorder.

Key Concept

The management of lithium therapy in pregnancy involves continuing the drug in severe bipolar disorder, screening for Ebstein anomaly via second-trimester fetal echocardiography, adjusting for third-trimester GFR increases, withholding during labor to prevent toxicity, and immediately resuming pre-pregnancy doses postpartum.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 145Question →

A 54-year-old man with a severe alcohol use disorder is brought to the emergency department for severe confusion, tremulousness, and an unsteady gait. Initial vital signs reveal a heart rate of 115/min and a blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg. Point-of-care blood glucose is 55 mg/dL. Neurologic examination shows prominent bilateral horizontal nystagmus and resting hand tremors.

Arrange the following clinical interventions in the most appropriate chronological sequence for managing this patient, from first to last.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: 1) Evaluate airway, breathing, and circulation, and establish intravenous access; 2) Administer high-dose intravenous thiamine; 3) Administer intravenous dextrose; 4) Administer intravenous lorazepam using a symptom-triggered approach; 5) Initiate oral naltrexone and comprehensive psychosocial treatment.
The correct sequential management of a patient presenting with severe alcohol withdrawal complicated by hypoglycemia and classic signs of Wernicke encephalopathy (ataxia, confusion, nystagmus) follows a strict physiological priority. First, always secure airway, breathing, circulation, and establish IV access. Second, thiamine must be administered BEFORE glucose; glucose metabolism relies on thiamine-dependent enzymes. Administering dextrose without prior thiamine abruptly depletes any remaining thiamine, precipitating irreversible Korsakoff syndrome. Third, dextrose is given to correct the documented hypoglycemia. Fourth, intravenous lorazepam is administered via a symptom-triggered protocol to manage the acute hyperadrenergic withdrawal state. Finally, long-term relapse prevention therapies, such as naltrexone, are initiated only after the patient is completely detoxified and medically stable.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess clinical stability
Airway, breathing, and circulation are secured, and IV access is established.
Immediate stabilization is the foundational principle for any acute, potentially life-threatening emergency presentation.
2
Address acute nutritional deficiencies prior to glucose loading
Intravenous thiamine is administered.
The patient exhibits the classic triad of Wernicke encephalopathy (encephalopathy, oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia). Thiamine is a required cofactor for glucose metabolism; administering glucose without prior thiamine can precipitate irreversible Korsakoff syndrome.
3
Correct metabolic derangement
Intravenous dextrose is administered.
Documented hypoglycemia (55 mg/dL) must be rapidly reversed immediately after thiamine is provided to restore cerebral energy supply.
4
Treat alcohol withdrawal syndrome
Symptom-triggered intravenous lorazepam is administered.
Benzodiazepines stimulate GABA-A receptors, mitigating the unopposed glutamatergic hyperactivity of withdrawal, thereby controlling tremors and preventing seizures or delirium tremens.
5
Implement long-term relapse prevention
Oral naltrexone is initiated.
Maintenance pharmacotherapy is strictly indicated only after the acute detoxification phase is successfully completed.

Key Concept

In patients with alcohol use disorder and suspected Wernicke encephalopathy, intravenous thiamine must always be administered before or concurrently with intravenous dextrose to prevent irreversible Korsakoff syndrome.
Question 146Question →

Match the following brief clinical scenarios and symptom duration timelines with the most appropriate DSM-5 psychiatric diagnosis.

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Items

A 32-year-old experiences intrusive flashbacks, hyperarousal, and avoidance of driving exactly 2 weeks after surviving a severe car accident.
A 41-year-old has experienced daily, uncontrollable worry about multiple everyday life events (finances, health, work), accompanied by sleep disturbance and muscle tension for the past 9 months.
A 24-year-old military veteran experiences significant emotional numbing, nightmares, and exaggerated startle response that began shortly after returning from deployment 8 months ago.
A 28-year-old develops prominent anxiety, insomnia, and tearfulness 2 months after an unexpected romantic breakup; symptoms cause significant distress but do not meet full criteria for a major depressive episode.
A 19-year-old experiences overwhelming fear and autonomic arousal exclusively when anticipating or giving a public speech, avoiding these situations entirely for the past year.

Matches

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Answer

The correct pairings align specific triggers and timelines to their respective DSM-5 criteria: 2-week trauma symptoms match Acute Stress Disorder, 8-month trauma symptoms match PTSD, 9-month multi-domain worry matches Generalized Anxiety Disorder, 1-year specific fear of public speaking matches Social Anxiety Disorder, and 2-month post-breakup distress matches Adjustment Disorder.
Each diagnosis in the DSM-5 for anxiety and trauma-related disorders relies heavily on the temporal relationship to a trigger and the total duration of symptoms. Acute Stress Disorder and PTSD share symptom clusters but are divided by the 1-month mark. Generalized Anxiety Disorder requires 6 months of multi-domain worry. Adjustment disorder requires symptom onset within 3 months of a stressor and resolves within 6 months of the stressor's termination. Social anxiety focuses specifically on the fear of scrutiny in performance or social situations.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze trauma-related scenarios for timeline distinctions.
The 2-week post-accident scenario fits Acute Stress Disorder (<1 month), while the 8-month post-deployment scenario fits PTSD (>1 month).
Symptom duration is the key distinguishing factor between Acute Stress Disorder and PTSD following a severe trauma.
2
Evaluate non-trauma anxiety presentations.
The 9-month pervasive worry fits Generalized Anxiety Disorder (>6 months required). The specific fear of public speaking fits Social Anxiety Disorder.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder requires excessive worry across multiple life domains, whereas Social Anxiety Disorder is restricted to fear of scrutiny or negative evaluation by others.
3
Assess the psychosocial stressor scenario.
The distress occurring 2 months after a breakup fits Adjustment Disorder.
Adjustment disorder occurs within 3 months of an identifiable stressor and does not meet the full criteria for another major psychiatric disorder.

Key Concept

Diagnostic timelines and core features of DSM-5 Anxiety and Trauma-Related Disorders
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 147Question →

A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife due to worsening confusion, unsteadiness, and a prominent tremor over the past three days. He has a history of bipolar I disorder that has been well controlled on lithium carbonate for the past five years. Two weeks ago, he was diagnosed with essential hypertension, and a new daily medication was added to his regimen. His temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F), blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. On examination, the patient is lethargic but arousable. Neurological examination reveals dysarthria, an unsteady, broad-based gait, and a coarse resting tremor in both hands. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL (baseline 0.9 mg/dL) and a serum lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L (therapeutic range: 0.6-1.2 mEq/L). Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which the new antihypertensive medication precipitated this patient's condition?

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Answer: Decreased renal clearance due to volume depletion and increased proximal tubule reabsorption

Answer

Decreased renal clearance due to volume depletion and increased proximal tubule reabsorption
The patient presents with acute lithium toxicity, characterized by neurologic symptoms (confusion, ataxia, dysarthria, and a coarse tremor) and an elevated serum lithium level. The most likely precipitant is the recent addition of a thiazide diuretic (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide) for essential hypertension. Thiazide diuretics act at the distal convoluted tubule to increase sodium and water excretion, leading to mild systemic volume depletion. This hypovolemia triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and a compensatory increase in sodium reabsorption at the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). Because lithium and sodium share similar transport mechanisms in the kidney, lithium reabsorption is concomitantly increased at the PCT. This results in decreased renal clearance of lithium, rapid accumulation, and subsequent toxicity. Other common drugs that decrease lithium clearance include NSAIDs (via decreased afferent arteriolar blood flow) and ACE inhibitors/ARBs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical presentation and laboratory results.
The patient exhibits confusion, ataxia, dysarthria, a coarse tremor, and a supratherapeutic serum lithium level (2.1 mEq/L), consistent with acute lithium toxicity.
Recognizing the toxic syndrome is the necessary first step to determine its underlying etiology.
2
Identify the precipitating event.
The recent initiation of a new antihypertensive medication is the likely trigger for the toxicity.
Several common drug classes interact dangerously with lithium, most notably certain antihypertensives and analgesics.
3
Determine the pharmacokinetic interaction between the likely antihypertensive (a thiazide diuretic) and lithium.
Thiazides induce volume depletion, which triggers a compensatory increase in the reabsorption of sodium and lithium in the proximal convoluted tubule, decreasing overall renal clearance.
Lithium shares renal transport mechanisms with sodium, making its clearance highly dependent on the patient's volume status and concurrent diuretic use.

Key Concept

Pharmacokinetic interactions of Lithium
Question 148Question →

A 2828-year-old software engineer presents to the clinic with a 44-week history of profound sadness, poor concentration, and a 55-kg (1111-lb) weight gain. She reports sleeping up to 1414 hours a day and feeling a "heavy sensation" in her arms and legs. She has stopped attending social events and is struggling to meet her project deadlines. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medications. When asked about past psychiatric symptoms, she recalls a 66-day period during college when she felt "unstoppable," slept only 22 to 33 hours a night without feeling tired, and wrote an entire novel. During that time, friends noted she was speaking much faster than usual, though her behavior did not result in hospitalization or academic failure. Vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory results show a thyroid-stimulating hormone level of 1.8μU/mL1.8 \mu U/mL (normal: 0.50.5 to 5.0μU/mL5.0 \mu U/mL) and a negative urine toxicology screen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy for this patient?

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Answer: Initiate lurasidone therapy

Answer

Initiate lurasidone therapy
The patient is presenting with a major depressive episode characterized by atypical features (hypersomnia, hyperphagia, leaden paralysis). Crucially, her history of a distinct 66-day period of abnormally elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and increased goal-directed activity (writing a novel) without severe impairment or hospitalization meets the criteria for a hypomanic episode. Therefore, her correct diagnosis is bipolar II disorder, currently in a depressive episode. First-line pharmacotherapy for bipolar depression includes mood stabilizers or specific second-generation antipsychotics such as lurasidone, quetiapine, or cariprazine. Lurasidone is an appropriate and effective choice that targets her depressive symptoms without risking mood destabilization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the current syndrome from the clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits depressed mood, weight gain, hypersomnia, and leaden paralysis for 44 weeks.
These symptoms fulfill the criteria for a major depressive episode with atypical features.
2
Evaluate the patient's psychiatric history for prior mood episodes.
The patient reports a distinct 66-day period of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and increased goal-directed activity.
Because this episode lasted at least 44 days and did not cause severe functional impairment or require hospitalization, it meets the criteria for a hypomanic episode.
3
Synthesize the diagnosis.
Major depressive episode plus a history of a hypomanic episode confirms the diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder.
Differentiating unipolar major depressive disorder from bipolar depression is a critical diagnostic step before initiating pharmacotherapy.
4
Determine the appropriate evidence-based pharmacotherapy.
Select a medication approved for bipolar depression, such as lurasidone.
Standard antidepressants (SSRIs) must be avoided as monotherapy in bipolar disorder to prevent mood destabilization.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with a depressive episode must be screened for a history of mania or hypomania to accurately differentiate between major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder, which dictates the choice of pharmacotherapy.
Question 149Question →

A 24-year-old man is brought to the outpatient psychiatric clinic by his parents. For the past 10 weeks, he has been isolating himself in his bedroom, claiming that foreign intelligence agents are surveilling him through the electrical outlets. His parents frequently hear him conversing with people when he is alone. During this time, his personal hygiene has significantly deteriorated, and he was fired from his job as a data analyst. He has no prior history of psychiatric illness and does not use alcohol or illicit substances. His medical history is unremarkable, and a recent comprehensive metabolic panel and urine toxicology screen were normal. The physician initiates antipsychotic pharmacotherapy. During a family session, the parents ask for clarification about his exact diagnosis and what to expect for his future. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding this patient's diagnosis and long-term prognosis?

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Answer: He currently meets criteria for schizophreniform disorder, and he will most likely progress to a chronic condition characterized by symptoms lasting beyond 6 months.

Answer

The most accurate statement is that the patient currently has schizophreniform disorder, and is statistically most likely to progress to a chronic condition (such as schizophrenia) lasting beyond 6 months.
This patient presents with active-phase psychotic symptoms (delusions, auditory hallucinations) and significant functional decline lasting for exactly 10 weeks. The primary psychotic disorders are distinguished largely by symptom duration. Brief psychotic disorder lasts less than 1 month, schizophreniform disorder lasts between 1 and 6 months, and schizophrenia requires at least 6 months of continuous signs of disturbance. Therefore, his current diagnosis is accurately classified as schizophreniform disorder. Prognostically, approximately two-thirds of patients diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder will eventually develop schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder. Thus, his symptoms are most likely to persist beyond 6 months, leading to a chronic illness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's current psychiatric symptoms and determine their exact duration.
The patient exhibits active-phase psychotic symptoms (delusions, auditory hallucinations) and significant functional decline that have been present for exactly 10 weeks.
To differentiate among the primary psychotic disorders, which are classified strictly by symptom duration.
2
Apply diagnostic timeline criteria to determine the current condition.
The 10-week duration falls precisely between the 1-month and 6-month markers, establishing a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder.
Brief psychotic disorder is diagnosed if symptoms last <1 month, while schizophrenia requires symptoms to persist for >6 months.
3
Determine the statistical prognosis of schizophreniform disorder to address the parents' question.
Approximately two-thirds of patients with schizophreniform disorder will eventually progress to schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder, meaning his symptoms will most likely persist beyond 6 months.
To identify the most likely long-term outcome associated with this specific diagnostic window.

Key Concept

The diagnosis of primary psychotic disorders relies heavily on symptom duration (Brief Psychotic Disorder <1 month; Schizophreniform Disorder 1-6 months; Schizophrenia >6 months). Most patients with schizophreniform disorder ultimately progress to schizophrenia.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 150Question →

A 34-year-old graphic designer comes to the office for a follow-up visit. Four weeks ago, she presented with pervasive sadness, hypersomnia, increased appetite, and a heavy feeling in her limbs. She was diagnosed with a major depressive episode and started on sertraline 50 mg daily. Today, she reports that her mood has not improved and she is frustrated. She says, "I stopped taking the pill three days ago because it wasn't working fast enough. Can we just try something else?" Upon further questioning, the patient mentions that three years ago, she experienced a 10-day period where she felt "incredibly energized," required only 2 hours of sleep per night without feeling tired, and impulsively drained her savings account to start a speculative business venture that quickly failed. She has no history of hallucinations or delusions. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Initiate therapy with an atypical antipsychotic such as quetiapine

Answer

Initiate therapy with an atypical antipsychotic such as quetiapine.
The correct answer recognizes that this patient has Bipolar I Disorder, currently in a depressive episode. Her history of a 10-day period of extreme energy, decreased need for sleep, and severe impulsivity meets the diagnostic criteria for a manic episode. In the treatment of bipolar depression, antidepressant monotherapy (such as resuming sertraline or switching to bupropion) is generally contraindicated because it can precipitate a manic switch and is frequently ineffective. First-line treatments for acute bipolar depression include specific atypical antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone, cariprazine) or mood stabilizers (e.g., lithium, lamotrigine). Therefore, initiating quetiapine is the most appropriate next step in her management.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's past psychiatric history.
The patient describes a 10-day period of severe elevated energy, decreased need for sleep, and impulsive financial behavior.
These symptoms meet the DSM-5 criteria for a manic episode (lasting at least 7 days), which changes the primary diagnosis from Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) to Bipolar I Disorder.
2
Evaluate the current presentation in the context of the new diagnosis.
The patient is currently experiencing a bipolar depressive episode with atypical features (hypersomnia, hyperphagia, leaden paralysis).
Treatment guidelines for bipolar depression differ significantly from unipolar depression.
3
Identify the contraindications in the current or proposed pharmacological plan.
Resuming sertraline or switching to another antidepressant monotherapy (like bupropion) is contraindicated due to the risk of precipitating a manic switch. Adding an MAOI is contraindicated due to the lack of a 14-day washout period.
Bipolar depression requires mood stabilizers or specific atypical antipsychotics, and combining serotonergic drugs inappropriately risks Serotonin Syndrome.
4
Select the most appropriate evidence-based therapy.
Initiating quetiapine is correct.
Quetiapine (along with lurasidone, lithium, and lamotrigine) is an established first-line treatment for acute bipolar depression.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with depressive episodes must be carefully screened for a lifetime history of mania or hypomania. If a history of mania is present, the diagnosis is Bipolar I Disorder, and antidepressant monotherapy is generally contraindicated due to the risk of inducing a manic switch.
Question 151Question →

A 27-year-old graduate student is brought to the university health clinic by his roommate. The roommate reports that for the past 14 weeks, the patient has been barricading himself in their shared apartment, claiming that rival researchers are trying to steal his thoughts using microwave beams. The patient has been hearing two voices arguing about his research outside his window, even when no one is there. He has not attended classes or bathed regularly during this time. Prior to this, he was a top-performing student with a wide circle of friends and no prior psychiatric history. Medical history is unremarkable. Vital signs and physical examination are within normal limits. A urine toxicology screen is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Schizophreniform disorder

Answer

Schizophreniform disorder
The correct diagnosis is schizophreniform disorder. The patient has clear active-phase symptoms of psychosis (delusions and auditory hallucinations) along with functional impairment. The defining feature for his diagnosis is the duration of his illness. His symptoms have been present for 14 weeks. According to DSM-5 criteria, schizophreniform disorder is diagnosed when symptoms of schizophrenia are present for at least 1 month but less than 6 months. If his symptoms persist beyond 6 months, the diagnosis would subsequently be changed to schizophrenia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric symptoms presented in the clinical vignette.
The patient exhibits paranoid delusions (belief that researchers are stealing thoughts via microwaves) and auditory hallucinations (hearing two voices arguing).
Establishing the presence of active-phase psychotic symptoms is required to navigate the differential diagnosis of psychotic disorders.
2
Assess the presence of major mood episodes.
There is no mention of a concurrent major depressive or manic episode.
The absence of prominent mood symptoms rules out schizoaffective disorder, bipolar disorder with psychotic features, and major depressive disorder with psychotic features.
3
Determine the total duration of the current symptomatic episode.
The symptoms have been present continuously for 14 weeks (approximately 3.5 months).
The precise duration of symptoms is the critical distinguishing factor among brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, and schizophrenia.
4
Apply the temporal diagnostic criteria to the patient's presentation.
The duration of 14 weeks is greater than 1 month but less than 6 months.
Symptoms lasting <1 month indicate brief psychotic disorder, 1 to 6 months indicate schizophreniform disorder, and >6 months indicate schizophrenia.

Key Concept

Distinguishing brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, and schizophrenia based strictly on the duration of clinical symptoms.
Question 152Question →

Match each clinical presentation with the most accurate psychiatric diagnosis based on symptom duration and clinical features.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A patient has experienced auditory hallucinations and flat affect for exactly 3 months, with no significant mood episodes.
A patient presents with a 10-month history of continuous delusions, disorganized speech, and marked decline in occupational functioning.
A patient has a 4-month history of believing they are secretly being monitored, with no other psychotic symptoms and entirely normal daily functioning.
A patient experiences an acute onset of visual hallucinations and disorganized behavior lasting 14 days, followed by a complete and full recovery.
A patient has a 7-month history of psychotic symptoms; during this time, they had a 2-month major depressive episode, but also experienced delusions for 3 weeks when their mood was completely normal.

Matches

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Answer

The presentations are matched primarily by timeline criteria and mood overlap: 3 months of symptoms corresponds to Schizophreniform disorder; 10 months with functional decline to Schizophrenia; 4 months of isolated delusions with normal functioning to Delusional disorder; 14 days of symptoms with full recovery to Brief psychotic disorder; and psychosis overlapping with a mood episode (plus 3 weeks of independent psychosis) to Schizoaffective disorder.
The clinical presentations are correctly categorized by strictly applying DSM-5 duration and symptom criteria. Brief psychotic disorder lasts less than 1 month. Schizophreniform disorder lasts 1 to 6 months. Schizophrenia requires continuous signs for at least 6 months. Delusional disorder involves at least 1 month of delusions without other prominent psychotic symptoms. Schizoaffective disorder requires a major mood episode concurrent with psychosis, plus at least 2 weeks of psychosis occurring in the absolute absence of mood symptoms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the duration of continuous psychotic symptoms for each presentation.
The total durations are 14 days, 3 months, 4 months, 7 months, and 10 months.
Duration is the primary differentiator between brief psychotic disorder (<1 month), schizophreniform disorder (1 to 6 months), and schizophrenia (>6 months).
2
Assess for the presence of major mood episodes and their temporal relationship to the psychotic symptoms.
One presentation features a 2-month depressive episode alongside a 7-month psychotic history, but critically includes 3 weeks of independent psychosis.
This specific temporal relationship distinguishes schizoaffective disorder from major depressive disorder with psychotic features and from primary schizophrenia.
3
Examine the remaining presentations for symptom profile restrictions and functional status.
One presentation is restricted entirely to non-bizarre paranoiac delusions with otherwise preserved functioning.
Isolated delusions without prominent hallucinations, disorganized speech, or negative symptoms, coupled with normal functioning, define delusional disorder.

Key Concept

Differentiation of primary psychotic disorders relies heavily on symptom duration (Brief Psychotic Disorder: <1 month; Schizophreniform: 1-6 months; Schizophrenia: >6 months) and the presence of concurrent mood episodes (Schizoaffective Disorder requires >2 weeks of psychosis without mood symptoms).
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 153Question →

A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to a 2-day history of worsening confusion, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait. She also reports several episodes of severe nausea and vomiting. Her medical history is significant for bipolar I disorder, which has been well-controlled on a stable dose of lithium carbonate for the past 4 years. Two weeks ago, she was evaluated by her primary care physician for newly diagnosed essential hypertension, and a daily medication was added to her regimen. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 128/82 mmHg, and pulse is 84/min. On physical examination, the patient appears lethargic. Neurological examination reveals a coarse, irregular resting tremor in both hands and truncal ataxia. Which of the following medications was most likely recently prescribed to this patient?

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Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide

Answer

Hydrochlorothiazide
The patient is presenting with classic signs of severe lithium toxicity, which include altered mental status, coarse tremors, ataxia, and gastrointestinal distress. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index and is primarily cleared by the kidneys, where it is handled similarly to sodium. Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, inhibit the Na+/Cl- cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubule. The resulting mild volume depletion triggers a compensatory increase in the reabsorption of both sodium and lithium in the proximal convoluted tubule. This significantly decreases lithium clearance and rapidly leads to toxicity. Other common medications that increase lithium levels include NSAIDs (except aspirin), ACE inhibitors, and ARBs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's acute clinical syndrome based on the presentation.
The patient has acute-on-chronic lithium toxicity, characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting) and severe neurologic signs (lethargy, confusion, ataxia, slurred speech, coarse tremors).
Recognizing the toxicity syndrome is required to determine which recent medication change precipitated the adverse event.
2
Determine the pharmacokinetic relationship between the new hypertension diagnosis and lithium clearance.
Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index and is cleared almost entirely by the kidneys. Its reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule is closely coupled with sodium.
Understanding lithium's renal handling allows the identification of drug classes that alter its excretion.
3
Select the antihypertensive medication that most significantly impairs lithium clearance.
Hydrochlorothiazide causes volume depletion, which triggers a compensatory increase in the reabsorption of both sodium and lithium in the proximal tubule, leading to systemic toxicity.
Thiazide diuretics are a classic and highly tested cause of drug-induced lithium toxicity.

Key Concept

Lithium toxicity can be precipitated by medications that decrease its renal clearance, most notably thiazide diuretics, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs).
Question 154Question →

A 48-year-old woman with a history of bipolar I disorder is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to progressive confusion, a coarse hand tremor, and an unsteady gait over the last three days. Her psychiatric condition has been stable on a fixed dose of lithium carbonate for the past five years. Two weeks ago, she was diagnosed with essential hypertension and started on a new antihypertensive medication by her primary care provider. On physical examination, she appears lethargic, has a coarse resting tremor in both hands, and demonstrates ataxia on finger-to-nose testing. Vital signs are within normal limits except for a blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg. Which of the following antihypertensive medications was most likely prescribed to this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide

Answer

Hydrochlorothiazide
The correct answer is the medication that directly interacts with lithium clearance. The patient is exhibiting classic signs of lithium toxicity (coarse tremor, ataxia, confusion, lethargy) shortly after starting a new antihypertensive drug. Lithium is exclusively excreted by the kidneys, and its clearance is highly dependent on sodium handling in the proximal tubule. Thiazide diuretics cause mild volume depletion, which stimulates a compensatory increase in the reabsorption of both sodium and lithium in the proximal tubule. This significantly reduces lithium clearance, leading to elevated serum levels and neurologic toxicity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's acute presentation.
The patient exhibits progressive confusion, a coarse hand tremor, and ataxia.
Identifying the clinical syndrome is essential. These are classic neurologic signs of lithium toxicity.
2
Identify potential triggers for the acute change in the patient's condition.
The patient was recently started on a new antihypertensive medication, which correlates temporally with the onset of her toxicity symptoms.
Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index, and its levels are easily altered by concurrent medications.
3
Determine which antihypertensive classes interact with lithium.
Medications that decrease glomerular filtration rate or increase proximal tubular reabsorption (e.g., thiazide diuretics, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors) significantly elevate serum lithium levels.
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that induces mild volume depletion, prompting the kidneys to reabsorb more sodium and lithium, precipitating toxicity.

Key Concept

Lithium is cleared by the kidneys, and its reabsorption is tied to sodium. Thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and NSAIDs decrease lithium clearance and can rapidly precipitate lithium toxicity.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 155Question →

Match each clinical scenario describing a patient with psychotic symptoms to the most appropriate primary psychiatric diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 45-year-old accountant has believed for 6 months that his coworkers are slightly shifting his desk items every night. He has no hallucinations, and his occupational functioning remains intact.
A 28-year-old woman experiences an acute onset of auditory hallucinations and disorganized speech 3 days after a severe car accident, with all symptoms fully resolving within 2 weeks.
A 20-year-old student exhibits social withdrawal, flat affect, and fixed beliefs that the radio is speaking directly to him. These symptoms began 3 months ago and are ongoing.
A 31-year-old man has a 2-year history of hearing critical voices. He also experienced two distinct 1-month episodes of profound anhedonia and suicidality, but the voices persist even during months when his mood is entirely euthymic.

Matches

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Answer

The scenarios match to Delusional disorder, Brief psychotic disorder, Schizophreniform disorder, and Schizoaffective disorder, respectively, based on exact symptom duration, associated mood correlations, and functional status.
Psychiatric diagnoses in the psychotic spectrum rely heavily on exact timelines and symptom combinations. Brief psychotic disorder lasts 1 day to 1 month. Schizophreniform disorder lasts 1 to 6 months. Schizophrenia requires at least 6 months of continuous disturbance. Schizoaffective disorder requires major mood episodes concurrent with schizophrenia criteria, plus at least 2 weeks of isolated psychosis. Delusional disorder involves greater than 1 month of non-bizarre or bizarre delusions without prominent hallucinations or functional decline.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the exact duration of the primary psychotic symptoms in each clinical scenario.
The durations are 6 months, 2 weeks, 3 months, and 2 years. These timeframes differentiate acute, intermediate, and chronic psychotic conditions.
Timeframes are critical for distinguishing brief psychotic disorder (less than 1 month), schizophreniform disorder (1 to 6 months), and schizophrenia (greater than 6 months).
2
Evaluate the patient's functional status and the presence of other symptom categories like hallucinations or negative symptoms.
The 45-year-old accountant lacks hallucinations and retains full function, separating him from the schizophrenia spectrum.
Delusional disorder requires at least 1 month of delusions without meeting criteria for schizophrenia and without marked functional impairment.
3
Analyze the longitudinal relationship between mood symptoms and psychotic symptoms in chronic presentations.
The 31-year-old man has psychotic symptoms continuing even when his mood is completely euthymic for months.
Psychosis occurring for greater than 2 weeks without a major mood episode distinguishes schizoaffective disorder from a mood disorder with psychotic features.

Key Concept

Psychotic disorders are primarily differentiated by symptom duration (1 month, 6 months), the longitudinal relationship between mood and psychosis, and the presence or absence of marked functional decline.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 156Question →

A 32-year-old man is court-mandated to attend a substance use disorder treatment program following an arrest for possession of cocaine. The clinic utilizes the Transtheoretical Model of Change to tailor motivational interviewing interventions. Over a two-year period, the patient progresses sequentially through the recognized behavioral stages of recovery. Arrange the following patient statements in chronological order, corresponding to the progression from the earliest stage of change to the latest.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological progression is: Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, and Maintenance.
The Transtheoretical Model describes a predictable sequence of behavioral change. A patient begins in Precontemplation (denial or ignorance of the problem), moves to Contemplation (weighing pros and cons of quitting), then to Preparation (making firm plans and minor adjustments to quit soon). This is followed by Action (active cessation of substance use for less than 6 months), and finally Maintenance (sustained abstinence for greater than 6 months with active relapse prevention strategies).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the stage of change represented by the statement denying any problem.
The statement minimizing the problem represents Precontemplation, the first stage.
In Precontemplation, patients lack insight into their substance use disorder and have no intention to change.
2
Identify the statement showing ambivalence and future consideration of change.
The statement about thinking of stopping later this year represents Contemplation, the second stage.
Patients in Contemplation recognize the problem and consider quitting, but have not yet made a firm commitment to immediate action.
3
Locate the statement demonstrating small preparatory steps for imminent change.
The statement about deleting the dealer's number and planning a meeting represents Preparation, the third stage.
Preparation involves concrete planning and small steps intended to lead to definitive action within the next month.
4
Identify the statement describing active, recent cessation of substance use.
The statement about stopping cocaine use for the past month represents the Action stage, the fourth stage.
The Action stage is characterized by active behavior modification and abstinence lasting less than 6 months.
5
Identify the statement describing long-term sustained abstinence and relapse prevention.
The statement about not using for over a year represents the Maintenance stage, the final stage.
Maintenance is defined by sustained abstinence (typically greater than 6 months) and the integration of new, healthy coping mechanisms.

Key Concept

The Transtheoretical Model of Change categorizes readiness to quit a substance into five sequential stages: Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, and Maintenance.
Question 157Question →

A 23-year-old woman comes to the outpatient clinic for a follow-up visit. Two weeks ago, she was evaluated in the emergency department after ingesting a handful of acetaminophen tablets following a brief but intense argument with her new boyfriend. She reports a history of multiple intense and short-lived relationships, frequent feelings of profound emptiness, and sudden outbursts of extreme anger. During the interview, she tells the physician, "You are the only person who has ever truly cared about me; all my previous doctors were completely useless." She is medically stable, denies any active suicidal ideation or intent, and expresses a desire to improve her coping skills. She has no history of manic episodes or psychosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the long-term management of this patient?

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Answer: Referral for dialectical behavior therapy

Answer

Referral for dialectical behavior therapy
The patient's presentation of a recent suicidal gesture, unstable relationships, chronic emptiness, difficulty controlling anger, and the use of splitting defense mechanisms strongly indicates borderline personality disorder (BPD). The most effective, evidence-based, first-line long-term treatment for BPD is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's primary diagnosis based on the clinical vignette.
The patient exhibits classic signs of borderline personality disorder (BPD).
She displays a history of unstable relationships, suicidal gestures (acetaminophen overdose), chronic feelings of emptiness, extreme anger, and idealization/devaluation (splitting, as seen in her comments about the physician vs. previous doctors).
2
Determine the standard first-line management for borderline personality disorder.
Psychotherapy, specifically dialectical behavior therapy (DBT), is the established first-line treatment.
DBT focuses on teaching emotional regulation, distress tolerance, mindfulness, and interpersonal effectiveness, which directly address the core deficits in BPD.
3
Evaluate alternative management options for safety and ethical adherence.
Pharmacotherapy and boundary-breaching actions are ruled out.
Polypharmacy with contraindicated drugs risks serotonin syndrome. Furthermore, bypassing the patient's autonomy or breaching confidentiality without an imminent threat violates core medical ethics and disrupts the crucial therapeutic boundaries needed for BPD patients.

Key Concept

The diagnosis of borderline personality disorder and its first-line management with dialectical behavior therapy, while maintaining strict ethical boundaries regarding confidentiality and patient autonomy.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 158Question →

A 25-year-old man is brought to the outpatient clinic by his sister, who is concerned about his profound social isolation. For the past 6 years, the patient has lived alone and worked as a night-shift security guard specifically to avoid interacting with others. He reports that he prefers to be alone because he feels "uncomfortable and suspicious" around people, believing they are secretly judging his aura. He has a long-standing belief in telepathy and claims he can occasionally predict the future through his dreams, although he denies ever hearing voices or seeing things that are not there. During the interview, he displays restricted affect and wears a heavy winter coat lined with aluminum foil, despite it being a warm summer day. His speech is vague and overly elaborate but remains logically connected. He has never been hospitalized and has maintained his employment. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

Answer

Schizotypal personality disorder
The correct diagnosis is Schizotypal personality disorder. This condition is a Cluster A (odd/eccentric) personality disorder characterized by a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits, marked by acute discomfort with close relationships, as well as cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior. This patient's magical thinking (telepathy, predicting the future), odd appearance (foil-lined coat), suspiciousness, and social anxiety are classic features. Crucially, while these patients exhibit odd thoughts, they do not experience frank hallucinations or true fixed delusions, separating their condition from schizophrenia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's presenting symptoms and timeline.
The patient has a 6-year history of social isolation, odd beliefs (telepathy, predicting the future), suspiciousness, and eccentric appearance (foil-lined coat).
Identifying the nature and chronicity of the symptoms is required to differentiate between personality disorders and acute psychotic illnesses.
2
Evaluate for the presence of frank psychotic symptoms.
The patient explicitly denies auditory or visual hallucinations and does not have fixed, false delusions (his thoughts are odd and magical, but do not meet the threshold for frank psychosis).
The absence of active-phase psychotic symptoms rules out primary psychotic disorders like schizophrenia or schizophreniform disorder.
3
Synthesize the findings to formulate a diagnosis.
A chronic, lifelong pattern of acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distortions (magical thinking), and eccentricities of behavior points directly to a Cluster A personality disorder.
Schizotypal personality disorder perfectly encompasses the combination of odd behavior, magical thinking, and interpersonal deficits present in this patient.

Key Concept

Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by a lifelong pattern of social and interpersonal deficits, cognitive or perceptual distortions (such as magical thinking and odd beliefs), and eccentric behavior, without the frank delusions or hallucinations seen in schizophrenia.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 159Question →

A 34-year-old woman comes to the outpatient psychiatry clinic reporting that she "cannot get out of bed" and feels completely hopeless. Over the past 6 weeks, she has experienced a persistently depressed mood, slept 14 hours a day, gained 4.5 kg (10 lb), and suffered from profound fatigue. She admits to passive suicidal ideation but denies any active plan. Her past psychiatric history is notable for a major depressive episode at age 22, for which she was prescribed paroxetine. Three weeks after starting paroxetine, she developed a severely elevated mood, rapid and pressured speech, decreased need for sleep (2 hours per night), and grandiose delusions resulting in psychiatric hospitalization. She was stabilized on a medication that she discontinued 5 years ago because she "felt fine." Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Current medications are metformin, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and daily ibuprofen. Her vital signs show a blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg. Her BMI is 38 kg/m². Laboratory studies reveal a hemoglobin A1c of 9.2%. Mental status examination shows marked psychomotor retardation, a flattened affect, and a depressed mood. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy for this patient's current psychiatric symptoms?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate lurasidone

Answer

Initiate lurasidone
The patient's history of a manic episode (hospitalization, grandiose delusions, decreased need for sleep) following paroxetine use indicates a definitive diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder. She is currently experiencing a severe, acute bipolar depressive episode. The primary goal of pharmacotherapy is to treat the depression without precipitating a manic switch, while minimizing adverse effects given her severe medical comorbidities. Lurasidone is an atypical antipsychotic FDA-approved for acute bipolar depression. Crucially, it has a highly favorable metabolic profile (weight and lipid neutral), making it the safest and most effective choice for a patient with severe obesity and uncontrolled type 2 diabetes (HbA1c 9.2%). Furthermore, it does not have severe pharmacokinetic interactions with her antihypertensives or NSAIDs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the underlying psychiatric disorder based on past history.
Bipolar I disorder, currently in a severe major depressive episode.
The history of hospitalization for mania (grandiose delusions, decreased need for sleep) triggered by paroxetine confirms Bipolar I disorder, not recurrent major depressive disorder.
2
Identify appropriate medication classes for acute bipolar depression.
Options include lurasidone, quetiapine, cariprazine, olanzapine-fluoxetine, or lithium.
Standard antidepressant monotherapies (SSRIs, SNRIs) must be explicitly avoided due to the high risk of precipitating a manic switch.
3
Evaluate the safety of lithium given the patient's current medication list.
Lithium is unsafe and highly contraindicated in this specific clinical context.
The concurrent use of ACE inhibitors (lisinopril), thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide), and NSAIDs (ibuprofen) drastically reduces renal lithium clearance, placing the patient at immediate risk for severe lithium toxicity.
4
Evaluate the remaining atypical antipsychotics against the patient's medical comorbidities.
Lurasidone is the most appropriate and optimal choice.
Olanzapine-fluoxetine and quetiapine have high metabolic liabilities and would exacerbate her uncontrolled type 2 diabetes (HbA1c 9.2%) and severe obesity. Lurasidone is metabolically neutral.

Key Concept

Pharmacologic management of acute bipolar depression in patients with complex medical comorbidities and polypharmacy.
Question 160Question →

A 25-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with a 2-month history of sudden, unpredictable episodes of intense fear accompanied by palpitations, sweating, shortness of breath, and a feeling of impending doom. The episodes typically reach their peak severity within 10 minutes. Because of these episodes, the patient has become increasingly fearful of leaving his house. He has a past medical history of bipolar I disorder, which was diagnosed three years ago, but he stopped taking his mood stabilizer 6 months ago. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination, electrocardiogram, and basic metabolic panel are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial long-term management for this patient's current condition?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer

Cognitive-behavioral therapy is the most appropriate initial long-term management.
This patient is presenting with classic symptoms of panic disorder with agoraphobia, characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and a subsequent fear of future attacks leading to avoidance behaviors. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a highly effective, first-line treatment for panic disorder. In a patient with an unmedicated history of bipolar I disorder, CBT is particularly appropriate as it avoids the major risk of pharmacologically precipitating a manic episode.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has a 2-month history of unexpected panic attacks and subsequent agoraphobia, leading to a diagnosis of Panic Disorder.
Establishing the correct diagnosis is required to determine the appropriate first-line treatment options.
2
Consider the patient's past medical history and its impact on treatment selection.
The patient has a history of Bipolar I disorder and is currently unmedicated.
Certain standard pharmacological treatments for anxiety, specifically SSRIs, can cause severe adverse effects such as a manic switch in patients with unmedicated bipolar disorder.
3
Select the safest and most effective initial treatment.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is chosen because it is a first-line treatment for panic disorder and safely avoids the pharmacological risks associated with antidepressants in this specific patient.
It addresses the core symptoms of panic and agoraphobia effectively without destabilizing the patient's underlying mood disorder.

Key Concept

In patients with a history of unmedicated bipolar disorder presenting with panic disorder, cognitive-behavioral therapy is the safest first-line treatment, as antidepressant monotherapy risks precipitating a manic episode.
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