Surgery

1344 questions

Question 201Question →

An on-call physician is asked to assess a 59-year-old female patient on the surgical ward. She is currently on her seventh day of recovery after undergoing an open resection of a perforated appendix. The nursing staff reports that she has developed excruciating, unremitting abdominal pain over the last few hours, accompanied by three episodes of vomiting dark green fluid. She confirms she has not passed gas or had a bowel movement since yesterday morning.

Vital signs show a temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F), blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg, heart rate of 128/min, and respiratory rate of 24/min. On physical examination, the patient appears acutely ill and lies completely still in bed. Her abdomen is significantly distended. Palpation elicits diffuse rigidity, involuntary guarding, and severe tenderness with sudden release of pressure. Auscultation reveals a complete absence of bowel sounds. Blood tests reveal a white blood cell count of 21,000/mm³ and an elevated venous lactate concentration. Plain abdominal radiographs display multiple loops of dilated small intestine containing prominent air-fluid levels, alongside an absence of distal colonic gas.

Which of the following are appropriate next steps in managing this patient's current condition? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Urgent surgical exploration of the abdomen; Intravenous administration of broad-spectrum antimicrobial agents

Answer

The correct steps are urgent surgical exploration of the abdomen and intravenous administration of broad-spectrum antimicrobial agents.
The correct answers identify the need for emergent surgery and antimicrobial coverage. This patient is presenting with a small bowel obstruction (SBO) that has progressed to strangulation and peritonitis. The classic signs of an uncomplicated SBO include colicky abdominal pain, distension, bilious vomiting, and obstipation. However, the development of continuous (unremitting) pain, fever, tachycardia, hypotension, peritoneal signs (rigidity, involuntary guarding), marked leukocytosis, and lactic acidosis all indicate that the bowel has become ischemic or necrotic. In this scenario, conservative management is no longer an option. The definitive treatment is an immediate exploratory laparotomy to evaluate bowel viability and resect any necrotic segments. Concurrently, because the ischemic bowel wall loses its mucosal integrity, enteric bacteria translocate into the peritoneal cavity and bloodstream. Therefore, initiating broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics immediately is critical to manage the resulting sepsis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and vital signs.
The patient has cardinal signs of a small bowel obstruction (SBO) including bilious vomiting, obstipation, and abdominal distension, combined with a high fever (39.1°C) and hemodynamic instability (hypotension, marked tachycardia).
Identifying systemic instability helps differentiate between uncomplicated and complicated surgical emergencies.
2
Evaluate the physical examination and laboratory/imaging findings.
The presence of a rigid abdomen with rebound tenderness indicates peritonitis. Leukocytosis, elevated lactate, and dilated small bowel loops confirm an SBO complicated by bowel ischemia or frank necrosis (strangulation).
Signs of peritonitis and ischemia dictate the urgency of the required intervention.
3
Determine the optimal management strategy for a complicated SBO.
Due to the impending or actual bowel perforation, the patient requires immediate broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover enteric pathogens and emergent exploratory laparotomy to resect the non-viable intestine.
Delaying surgery in the presence of strangulated bowel leads to rapidly progressive sepsis and high mortality.

Key Concept

Patients with a small bowel obstruction who develop signs of strangulation (fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis, metabolic acidosis) or peritonitis (rigidity, rebound tenderness) require immediate administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics and emergent surgical exploration.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 202Question →

A physician is called to the bedside to evaluate a 68-year-old male who developed acute shortness of breath. The patient underwent an uncomplicated partial bowel resection three days ago. His past medical history includes essential hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a myocardial infarction four years ago. During the first two postoperative days, he received a total of 5 liters of isotonic crystalloid due to transient episodes of hypotension. Current vital signs show a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), blood pressure of 162/95 mmHg, heart rate of 108/min, and a respiratory rate of 26/min. Pulse oximetry is 89% on room air. On physical examination, the jugular venous pressure is elevated. Lung auscultation reveals bilateral basilar crackles, and cardiac auscultation demonstrates a third heart sound (S3). The surgical incision is intact without erythema or drainage. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administer intravenous furosemide

Answer

Administer intravenous furosemide
The correct answer is administering intravenous furosemide. This patient is presenting with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) characterized by cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The diagnosis is supported by the triad of an S3 gallop, elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), and bilateral basilar crackles in the setting of acute hypoxia. Patients with a history of cardiac disease (such as a prior myocardial infarction) are at high risk for ADHF in the postoperative period, particularly after receiving aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation. As the administered crystalloids begin to mobilize from the extravascular space back into the intravascular compartment around postoperative day 3, the compromised left ventricle cannot handle the increased preload, leading to pulmonary congestion. The immediate next best step is to administer an intravenous loop diuretic like furosemide to decrease preload and resolve the pulmonary edema.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical problem from the physical examination and vital signs.
The patient has acute dyspnea, hypoxia, an elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral crackles, and an S3 gallop on postoperative day 3.
Recognizing this specific constellation of signs is essential to differentiate between various causes of postoperative respiratory distress.
2
Correlate the physical findings with the patient's recent medical history and interventions.
The patient has a history of a myocardial infarction and received large volumes of intravenous fluids (5 liters) over the past 48 hours.
Prior structural heart disease predisposes to ventricular dysfunction, and aggressive fluid resuscitation often precipitates volume overload in these patients once third-spaced fluid begins to mobilize.
3
Determine the diagnosis and select the appropriate therapeutic intervention.
The diagnosis is acute decompensated heart failure presenting as cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Intravenous loop diuretics (like furosemide) are the most appropriate next step.
Diuresis effectively reduces intravascular volume and preload, which relieves pulmonary congestion and improves oxygenation.

Key Concept

Postoperative acute decompensated heart failure frequently occurs following aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation in patients with underlying cardiac disease, presenting with hypoxia, crackles, elevated JVP, and an S3 gallop.
Question 203Question →

Match each clinical presentation to its most appropriate definitive procedural or surgical management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 68-year-old man with a 3-week history of painless gross hematuria; in-office flexible cystoscopy reveals a 2.5 cm exophytic, frond-like mass on the right lateral bladder wall.
A 26-year-old man presenting with a painless, firm, non-transilluminating nodule in the right testicle; scrotal ultrasound confirms a 1.5 cm solid, hypoechoic intratesticular mass.
A 74-year-old man with recurrent urinary tract infections, severe lower urinary tract symptoms, and two failed trials without a catheter secondary to benign prostatic hyperplasia.
A 58-year-old man with an incidentally discovered 3.2 cm solid, contrast-enhancing mass in the lower pole of the left kidney on a computed tomography scan.
A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 26 weeks gestation presenting with severe right-sided colicky flank pain, intractable nausea, and an obstructing 8 mm proximal ureteral calculus.

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches pair each urologic condition with its gold-standard procedural intervention: Bladder tumor with TURBT, testicular mass with radical inguinal orchiectomy, complicated BPH with TURP, small renal mass with partial nephrectomy, and obstructing stone in pregnancy with ureteral stent placement.
Each clinical presentation necessitates a specific, guideline-directed procedural intervention based on anatomic location, underlying pathology, and patient-specific risk factors (such as pregnancy).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient with painless gross hematuria and a visible bladder lesion.
Identifies a suspected bladder malignancy.
Requires tissue diagnosis and initial resection via a specialized transurethral approach (TURBT).
2
Analyze the young male with a solid intratesticular mass.
Suspicion for testicular cancer is established.
Requires an inguinal surgical approach to remove the testis entirely without violating scrotal lymphatics.
3
Assess the elderly man with refractory urinary retention due to enlarged prostate.
Medical management has demonstrably failed.
Indicates the need for surgical removal of obstructing prostatic tissue via TURP.
4
Evaluate the patient with a small, 3.2 cm solid renal mass.
Suspicious for a Stage I Renal Cell Carcinoma.
Tumors smaller than 4 cm are optimally managed with nephron-sparing partial nephrectomy.
5
Assess the pregnant patient with an obstructing stone and severe symptoms.
Requires immediate urinary tract decompression while protecting the fetus.
Ureteral stenting safely relieves the obstruction without the risks of definitive stone surgery during pregnancy.

Key Concept

Definitive surgical and procedural management of common urologic emergencies and neoplasms.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 204Question →

Match each of the following clinical presentations of urologic pathology with the most appropriate definitive surgical intervention.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 3232-year-old man presents with a firm, painless right testicular mass. Ultrasound shows a 22-cm solid, hypoechoic intratesticular lesion with internal vascularity. Serum alpha-fetoprotein and beta-hCG are normal.
A 5555-year-old man with a normal baseline creatinine is incidentally found to have a 3.53.5-cm exophytic, contrast-enhancing solid mass at the lower pole of the left kidney on a CT scan.
A 7272-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer presents with acute bilateral leg weakness, hyperreflexia, and urinary retention. Corticosteroids are initiated immediately, but rapid surgical androgen deprivation is indicated.
A 6565-year-old man undergoes transurethral resection of a large bladder tumor. Pathology demonstrates high-grade urothelial carcinoma that invades into the muscularis propria (detrusor muscle).
A 5858-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with fever, tachycardia, and severe perineal pain. Examination reveals a swollen, exquisitely tender, erythematous scrotum with palpable crepitus.

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches align each specific clinical presentation with its definitive surgical standard of care based on staging, anatomical considerations, and acuity.
Each correct pairing reflects the established surgical guidelines for urologic diseases: radical inguinal orchiectomy for testicular masses to prevent seeding, partial nephrectomy for T1a renal masses to spare nephrons, simple orchiectomy for rapid palliation of advanced prostate cancer, radical cystectomy for muscle-invasive bladder cancer, and emergent debridement for necrotizing fasciitis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the presentation of the 3232-year-old with a solid intratesticular mass.
Identify suspected testicular malignancy.
Solid intratesticular masses are highly suspicious for primary testicular cancer and require radical inguinal orchiectomy (removal of the testicle and spermatic cord up to the internal inguinal ring) to prevent scrotal lymphatic seeding.
2
Analyze the presentation of the 5555-year-old with a 3.53.5-cm exophytic renal mass.
Identify a stage T1a renal cell carcinoma.
For clinically localized renal masses under 44 cm, partial nephrectomy is preferred over radical nephrectomy to preserve maximal renal parenchyma and decrease the long-term risk of chronic kidney disease.
3
Analyze the presentation of the 7272-year-old with metastatic prostate cancer and spinal cord compression.
Identify the need for emergent, rapid androgen deprivation.
Bilateral simple orchiectomy (subcapsular removal of testosterone-producing parenchyma) immediately halts testosterone production, providing rapid relief for hormone-sensitive metastatic complications without the risk of an LHRH agonist flare.
4
Analyze the presentation of the 6565-year-old with detrusor-invasive urothelial carcinoma.
Identify muscle-invasive bladder cancer.
Once urothelial carcinoma invades the muscularis propria, transurethral resection is insufficient for cure. The standard surgical treatment is radical cystectomy with urinary diversion.
5
Analyze the presentation of the 5858-year-old diabetic with severe perineal pain and crepitus.
Identify Fournier gangrene.
Crepitus indicates gas-producing organisms causing necrotizing fasciitis. Source control via emergent wide surgical debridement of all necrotic tissue is the most critical intervention.

Key Concept

Definitive surgical management of common urologic malignancies and emergencies.
Question 205Question →

Match each presentation of genitourinary trauma or iatrogenic injury with its most appropriate definitive surgical or clinical management step.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

During an exploratory laparotomy for abdominal trauma, a 1.5-cm transection is identified in the proximal third of the ureter.
During a complex pelvic exenteration, a complete distal ureteral avulsion is recognized 2 cm from the ureterovesical junction.
A patient develops high fever, leukocytosis, and an expanding pelvic urinoma on postoperative day 6 following a difficult hysterectomy.
Computed tomography shows a deep renal laceration extending into the collecting system with contrast extravasation in a hemodynamically stable patient.

Matches

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Answer

Proximal ureteral transection matches with primary ureteroureterostomy; distal ureteral avulsion matches with ureteroneocystostomy; delayed post-op ureteral leak with urinoma matches with percutaneous nephrostomy and drainage; and stable Grade IV renal laceration matches with conservative management.
Appropriate urologic trauma management requires tailoring the intervention to the anatomy. Proximal injuries retain enough healthy tissue for end-to-end anastomosis. Distal injuries lack distal vascularity, necessitating bladder reimplantation. Delayed, infected presentations require a damage-control approach (diversion via nephrostomy) rather than definitive repair. Stable renal trauma requires observation, reserving surgery for instability.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the anatomic location and timing of the ureteral injuries.
Proximal/mid-ureteral injuries differ in management from distal injuries due to vascular supply and proximity to the bladder.
Ureteral blood supply is medial in the upper tract and lateral in the lower tract. Distal injuries are best reimplanted into the bladder to ensure viability.
2
Evaluate the timing of iatrogenic injury recognition.
Intraoperative recognition allows immediate repair. Postoperative day 6 recognition involves inflamed, friable tissue.
Attempting primary anastomosis in an infected, delayed operative field leads to stricture or breakdown; thus, temporary diversion is required.
3
Analyze the renal trauma parameters.
The patient has a high-grade injury (extravasation) but remains hemodynamically stable.
Hemodynamic stability dictates non-operative management for renal trauma, regardless of the presence of contrast extravasation from the collecting system.

Key Concept

Surgical management of genitourinary trauma and iatrogenic ureteral injury depends strictly on anatomic location, time of recognition, and patient hemodynamic stability.
Question 206Question →

A 38-year-old woman is evaluated in the surgical intensive care unit on postoperative day 1 following an elective restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis for medically refractory ulcerative colitis. Her past medical history is significant for severe ulcerative colitis managed with high-dose oral prednisone for the past 8 months. The prednisone was tapered and completely discontinued 2 weeks prior to surgery due to the planned curative procedure.

Current vital signs are temperature 39.2°C (102.6°F), blood pressure 74/42 mm Hg, heart rate 126/min, and respiratory rate 22/min. Physical examination reveals a lethargic, somnolent patient. The abdomen is diffusely tender to deep palpation but remains soft, with no guarding, rebound, or rigidity. The surgical incision is clean, dry, and intact.

Laboratory studies show:

Laboratory TestResultReference Range
Sodium131 mEq/L136-145 mEq/L
Potassium5.6 mEq/L3.5-5.0 mEq/L
Chloride98 mEq/L98-106 mEq/L
Bicarbonate20 mEq/L22-28 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen24 mg/dL8-20 mg/dL
Creatinine1.1 mg/dL0.6-1.2 mg/dL
Glucose56 mg/dL70-110 mg/dL
Leukocytes11,500/mm³4,500-11,000/mm³

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Intravenous administration of hydrocortisone

Answer

Intravenous administration of hydrocortisone
The correct answer is the intravenous administration of hydrocortisone. This patient has a history of long-term prednisone use (8 months) for ulcerative colitis, which profoundly suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. Although the medication was discontinued 2 weeks prior to surgery, complete HPA axis recovery can take up to 6 to 12 months. The severe physiological stress of a major operation significantly increases the body's demand for cortisol. Without adequate endogenous cortisol production or the administration of exogenous 'stress-dose' perioperative steroids, the patient rapidly develops an acute adrenal crisis. This life-threatening condition is characterized by severe distributive shock (hypotension and tachycardia that is refractory to fluids), high fever, lethargy, and a classic metabolic triad: hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. The definitive and immediate treatment is the intravenous administration of glucocorticoids (e.g., hydrocortisone or dexamethasone) alongside vigorous intravenous fluid resuscitation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's preoperative medical and medication history.
The patient used high-dose systemic corticosteroids for 8 months and discontinued them only 2 weeks prior to surgery, placing her at extremely high risk for hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppression.
Prolonged exogenous steroid use inhibits endogenous CRH and ACTH production. HPA axis recovery can take 6 to 12 months after cessation.
2
Evaluate the acute postoperative clinical presentation and laboratory findings.
The patient presents with severe distributive shock (hypotension, tachycardia), high fever, lethargy, and a metabolic triad of hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia on postoperative day 1.
The physiological stress of major surgery drastically increases the body's demand for cortisol. Without adequate endogenous production, acute adrenal crisis ensues, presenting with shock and characteristic mineralocorticoid/glucocorticoid deficiency lab patterns.
3
Determine the most critical, life-saving next step in management.
The immediate administration of intravenous glucocorticoids (such as hydrocortisone or dexamethasone) along with vigorous intravenous fluid resuscitation is required.
Definitive replacement of the missing cortisol rapidly reverses the shock, as vasopressors are largely ineffective in the absence of permissive glucocorticoid effects.

Key Concept

Patients with prolonged exposure to systemic corticosteroids are at high risk for secondary adrenal insufficiency and can develop a life-threatening acute adrenal crisis during the physiological stress of surgery if stress-dose steroids are not administered.
Question 207Question →

An 86-year-old multiparous woman is brought to the emergency department due to a 3-day history of progressive abdominal distension, intractable vomiting, and failure to pass flatus or stool. She resides in an assisted living facility and has a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and profound, unintentional weight loss over the past 6 months. She also complains of pain radiating down the medial aspect of her right thigh, which is exacerbated by extending and internally rotating the right hip. Her temperature is 38.4∘C38.4^{\circ}\text{C} (101.1∘F101.1^{\circ}\text{F}), pulse is 122/min122/\text{min}, respirations are 24/min24/\text{min}, and blood pressure is 88/55 mm Hg88/55\text{ mm Hg}. Physical examination reveals a tympanic, distended abdomen with marked right lower quadrant tenderness and involuntary guarding. Bowel sounds are high-pitched and tinkling. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 18,500/mm318,500/\text{mm}^3 with 15%15\% bands and a serum lactate level of 4.6 mmol/L4.6\text{ mmol/L}. An upright abdominal radiograph demonstrates multiple dilated loops of small bowel with prominent air-fluid levels, but no pneumoperitoneum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Immediate exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Immediate exploratory laparotomy
The correct answer is immediate exploratory laparotomy. This patient presents with a small bowel obstruction (SBO) secondary to a strangulated obturator hernia. She exhibits the classic Howship-Romberg sign (pain radiating to the medial thigh, exacerbated by hip extension and internal rotation), which occurs when the herniated bowel compresses the obturator nerve within the obturator canal. Obturator hernias typically occur in elderly, multiparous women with significant recent weight loss, which causes the loss of the protective preperitoneal fat pad in the obturator canal. Most importantly, this patient has 'hard signs' of bowel ischemia and strangulation: fever, tachycardia, hypotension, peritonitis (involuntary guarding), marked leukocytosis, and lactic acidosis. Any patient with SBO who develops hemodynamic instability, peritonitis, or signs of ischemia must undergo immediate surgical exploration to prevent bowel perforation, overwhelming sepsis, and death.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical syndrome from the patient's presentation.
The patient has a mechanical small bowel obstruction (SBO) complicated by strangulation and ischemia, evidenced by fever, hypotension, peritonitis, leukocytosis, and lactic acidosis.
Recognizing the severity of the SBO dictates the urgency of intervention.
2
Determine the specific etiology of the obstruction.
The patient has an obturator hernia.
The triad of an elderly, multiparous woman with profound weight loss presenting with SBO and the Howship-Romberg sign (medial thigh pain exacerbated by hip extension and internal rotation) is pathognomonic for an obturator hernia compressing the obturator nerve.
3
Select the most appropriate next step in management based on the patient's stability.
Immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Because the patient is hemodynamically unstable and has hard signs of bowel necrosis, diagnostic imaging (like CT) and conservative measures must be bypassed in favor of emergent surgical exploration.

Key Concept

Patients with mechanical small bowel obstruction who exhibit signs of strangulation (fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis, lactic acidosis) or peritonitis require immediate exploratory laparotomy, overriding the need for further diagnostic imaging.
Question 208Question →

A 4242-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital on postoperative day 22 following a total thyroidectomy for a large toxic multinodular goiter. Her current medications include levothyroxine. She reports new-onset tingling around her mouth and in the fingertips of both hands. She also mentions mild nausea and states she has not had a bowel movement since before the surgery. She has no difficulty breathing or voice changes. Vital signs are temperature 38.0∘C38.0^{\circ}\text{C} (100.4∘F100.4^{\circ}\text{F}), blood pressure 122/78 mmHg122/78\text{ mmHg}, heart rate 84/min84/\text{min}, and respiratory rate 14/min14/\text{min}. Physical examination reveals twitching of the ipsilateral facial muscles when the area just anterior to the earlobe is tapped. The surgical incision is clean, dry, and intact without erythema or fluctuance. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is soft and non-distended with hypoactive bowel sounds.

Laboratory results are as follows:

Laboratory TestResultReference Range
Serum total calcium7.5 mg/dL7.5\text{ mg/dL}8.4−10.2 mg/dL8.4 - 10.2\text{ mg/dL}
Serum albumin4.0 g/dL4.0\text{ g/dL}3.5−5.0 g/dL3.5 - 5.0\text{ g/dL}
Serum phosphorus5.2 mg/dL5.2\text{ mg/dL}2.5−4.5 mg/dL2.5 - 4.5\text{ mg/dL}
Serum intact parathyroid hormone8 pg/mL8\text{ pg/mL}15−65 pg/mL15 - 65\text{ pg/mL}
Serum TSH0.1 \muU/mL0.1\text{ \mu U/mL}0.4−4.0 \muU/mL0.4 - 4.0\text{ \mu U/mL}
Serum free T41.9 ng/dL1.9\text{ ng/dL}0.9−1.7 ng/dL0.9 - 1.7\text{ ng/dL}

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Oral administration of calcium carbonate and calcitriol

Answer

The most appropriate next step is the oral administration of calcium carbonate and calcitriol.
The correct answer is oral administration of calcium carbonate and calcitriol. This patient presents with perioral tingling and a positive Chvostek sign on postoperative day 2 following a total thyroidectomy. Her laboratory results confirm hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and an inappropriately low parathyroid hormone (PTH) level, establishing the diagnosis of primary hypoparathyroidism. This is a well-known complication of total thyroidectomy caused by inadvertent injury, devascularization, or removal of the parathyroid glands. Because her symptoms are mild (paresthesias and Chvostek sign without severe features like tetany, carpopedal spasm, seizures, or arrhythmias), the most appropriate management is oral calcium supplementation combined with calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol). Calcitriol is necessary because the lack of PTH impairs the renal conversion of 25-hydroxyvitamin D to its active form. Intravenous calcium gluconate is reserved for severe, life-threatening symptoms or a serum calcium level strictly below 7.0 mg/dL7.0\text{ mg/dL}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's acute symptoms and physical examination findings.
Identified perioral tingling and a positive Chvostek sign (facial muscle twitching).
These are classic signs of neuromuscular irritability indicating clinical hypocalcemia.
2
Analyze the laboratory results in the context of recent surgery.
Confirmed hypocalcemia (7.5 mg/dL7.5\text{ mg/dL}) and hyperphosphatemia with inappropriately low parathyroid hormone (8 pg/mL8\text{ pg/mL}).
To diagnose postoperative primary hypoparathyroidism, a known complication of total thyroidectomy.
3
Determine the appropriate severity-based treatment for hypocalcemia.
Selected oral calcium carbonate and calcitriol.
The patient has mild to moderate symptoms without life-threatening features (e.g., tetany, arrhythmias), which warrants oral replacement rather than intravenous calcium.
4
Assess other clinical findings to ensure no other emergent interventions are required.
Identified low-grade fever and mild ileus as normal postoperative day 2 findings, and recognized suppressed TSH as an expected residual effect of toxic multinodular goiter.
To rule out infection, deep vein thrombosis, or bowel obstruction, and confirm that conservative management of these secondary findings is appropriate.

Key Concept

Mild to moderate symptomatic postoperative hypocalcemia following thyroidectomy is managed with oral calcium and calcitriol, prioritizing acute stabilization over expected postoperative lab abnormalities or normal physiologic surgical responses.
Question 209Question →

During morning rounds on the surgical ward, a 62-year-old woman complains of new-onset pain around her incision and burning with urination. She is currently on postoperative day 6 following a total abdominal hysterectomy for symptomatic uterine fibroids. Her indwelling urinary catheter was removed 48 hours ago. Her temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, heart rate is 94/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Examination of the abdomen reveals significant erythema, induration, and a small amount of purulent drainage at the surgical incision site. Auscultation of the lungs reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally. Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Open the surgical incision to allow for adequate drainage; Perform a microscopic urinalysis and send a urine sample for culture

Answer

The correct steps are to open the surgical incision to allow for adequate drainage AND perform a microscopic urinalysis while sending a urine sample for culture.
This patient presents with a fever on postoperative day 6 along with two distinct sources of infection: a surgical site infection (SSI) and a likely urinary tract infection (UTI). The definitive initial management for a superficial SSI with purulent drainage is to open the wound to allow for proper drainage and healing by secondary intention. Simultaneously, her dysuria following Foley catheter removal warrants a urinalysis and urine culture to confirm a UTI and guide specific antibiotic therapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the timing of the fever and physical exam findings.
The patient has a fever on postoperative day 6 with a purulent abdominal wound and dysuria.
Postoperative fever etiologies correlate strongly with the timeline. POD 6 fevers are classically associated with wound infections or deep space infections, while the recent catheter removal and dysuria point to a urinary tract infection.
2
Determine the appropriate management for the wound finding.
The presence of purulence and induration indicates a surgical site infection. The primary treatment is source control.
Superficial surgical site infections are primarily managed by opening the incision, draining the purulent material, and packing the wound. Systemic antibiotics are often unnecessary unless there is overlying cellulitis or systemic toxicity.
3
Determine the appropriate diagnostic step for the urinary symptoms.
A urinalysis and urine culture must be obtained.
Catheter-associated urinary tract infections are a common cause of postoperative fever, and targeted antibiotic therapy requires identification of the offending organism via culture.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and management of common postoperative complications based on the timeline, specifically surgical site infections (POD 5-7) and urinary tract infections (POD 3-5).
Question 210Question →

A 72-year-old woman is seen by the surgical team on the fifth day following a right total hip arthroplasty. She complains of new, progressive aching pain in her right thigh and calf that began the previous evening. Her temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg, pulse is 96/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Pulse oximetry shows 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals asymmetric edema of the right lower extremity from the mid-thigh down to the ankle, along with localized tenderness over the posterior calf. The surgical incision over the lateral hip is well-approximated with no erythema, warmth, or discharge. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Perform compression ultrasonography of the right lower extremity

Answer

Perform compression ultrasonography of the right lower extremity
The patient's clinical presentation of unilateral lower extremity edema, calf tenderness, and low-grade fever on postoperative day 5 following major orthopedic surgery is highly suspicious for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). DVT represents the 'Walking' component of the classic '5 Ws' of postoperative fever and typically occurs between days 4 and 6. The most appropriate initial step in evaluating a suspected DVT is compression ultrasonography of the affected extremity. This noninvasive test is highly sensitive and specific for detecting proximal venous thrombosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical problem.
The patient is on postoperative day 5 after major orthopedic surgery and presents with a new-onset low-grade fever, tachycardia, and unilateral lower extremity pain and swelling.
Recognizing the timing and specific physical findings is essential to formulating a differential diagnosis for postoperative fever.
2
Correlate the findings with the '5 Ws' of postoperative fever.
The presentation strongly aligns with 'Walking' (deep vein thrombosis), which typically manifests around postoperative days 4 to 6 with unilateral leg edema and can cause a mild fever.
Connecting the clinical signs to common timeline-based postoperative complications prevents unnecessary diagnostic testing for unrelated conditions.
3
Determine the best initial diagnostic step.
Compression ultrasonography of the lower extremity is selected.
It is the standard, noninvasive, and most appropriate first test to confirm or rule out a deep vein thrombosis.

Key Concept

Postoperative fever etiology and deep vein thrombosis diagnosis
Question 211Question →

During surgical rounds, an attending physician is reviewing the classic timeline of postoperative complications with the medical team to establish a diagnostic protocol. Arrange the following common causes of postoperative fever in the correct chronological order of their typical onset, starting with the earliest expected complication and ending with the latest.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is Atelectasis (Days 1-2), Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (Days 3-5), Surgical site infection (Days 5-7), and Drug-induced fever (Days >7).
The classic timeline for postoperative fever follows a highly predictable sequence based on the underlying pathogenesis. It begins with atelectasis (days 1-2) due to hypoventilation, followed by urinary tract infections (days 3-5) from catheter colonization, then surgical site infections (days 5-7) as bacteria multiply in the wound, and finally drug-induced fever (>7 days) which requires a longer period for immune sensitization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the etiology with the earliest onset.
Atelectasis occurs on postoperative days 1-2.
Immediate postoperative pain and anesthesia effects lead to shallow breathing and alveolar collapse.
2
Identify the etiology that follows early pulmonary complications.
Urinary tract infection occurs on postoperative days 3-5.
Bacterial colonization of indwelling Foley catheters takes a few days to progress into a symptomatic clinical infection.
3
Identify the timing of wound-related complications.
Surgical site infection occurs on postoperative days 5-7.
Pathogens introduced during surgery require a multiday incubation period to multiply and cause an invasive tissue infection.
4
Identify the etiology with the most delayed onset.
Drug-induced fever occurs after postoperative day 7.
Hypersensitivity reactions require a sensitization period to the new medication, which typically takes a week or longer to develop.

Key Concept

Chronological timeline of postoperative fever etiologies (The '5 Ws' mnemonic)
Question 212Question →

Approximately 24 hours following an uncomplicated open appendectomy, a 34-year-old man is noted to have an elevated temperature. He has no significant past medical history and takes no routine medications. He currently complains only of expected mild pain at the surgical site. Vital signs show a temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F), a heart rate of 90/min, blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 16/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Auscultation of the chest demonstrates diminished breath sounds at the bilateral lung bases. Examination of the abdomen shows a dry, intact surgical dressing with no surrounding erythema or induration. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Encourage incentive spirometry and early ambulation

Answer

Encourage incentive spirometry and early ambulation
The most appropriate next step in management is to encourage incentive spirometry and early ambulation. This patient's presentation of a low-grade fever within the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery, combined with diminished breath sounds at the lung bases, is the classic presentation of atelectasis. Atelectasis is a very common postoperative complication caused by shallow breathing and impaired cough mechanics secondary to pain or anesthesia. It is considered a non-infectious cause of early postoperative fever. The standard treatment is pulmonary toilet, encompassing early ambulation, deep breathing exercises, and incentive spirometry, which help to re-expand collapsed alveoli.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's timeline
The patient is 24 hours (postoperative day 1) status post open appendectomy.
The timing of postoperative fever is the most critical factor in determining its etiology.
2
Evaluate the clinical signs and symptoms
The patient has a low-grade fever, diminished breath sounds at the bases, normal oxygen saturation, and no wound abnormalities.
Physical exam findings correlate with the expected physiologic changes, specifically alveolar collapse (atelectasis).
3
Determine the appropriate management
Identify atelectasis as the diagnosis and select non-pharmacologic respiratory interventions.
Atelectasis is managed and prevented effectively with pulmonary toilet, which includes incentive spirometry, deep breathing, and early ambulation.

Key Concept

Postoperative fever on days 1-2 is most commonly caused by atelectasis, which is managed preventatively and therapeutically with incentive spirometry and early ambulation.
Question 213Question →

A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after a high-speed motorcycle collision. Upon arrival, his airway is patent and his breathing is spontaneous but rapid. His blood pressure is 75/40 mmHg, heart rate is 135/min, and respiratory rate is 24/min. Physical examination reveals a distended and rigidly tense abdomen with diffuse tenderness. Intravenous access is established, and 1 liter of warmed crystalloid solution is administered rapidly without improvement in his blood pressure. A Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) examination reveals a large amount of free fluid in the hepatorenal and splenorenal recesses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy is the most appropriate next step for a hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam.
This patient presents with hemorrhagic shock (hypotension, tachycardia) after blunt abdominal trauma. His lack of response to an initial fluid bolus indicates ongoing, active bleeding. In the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) algorithm, a hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST examination (indicating hemoperitoneum) requires immediate transport to the operating room for an exploratory laparotomy. The primary goal is prompt surgical control of the bleeding source.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess hemodynamic status and injury mechanism.
The patient is hemodynamically unstable (BP 75/40 mmHg, HR 135/min) following blunt trauma.
Identifying instability determines whether the patient can safely undergo time-consuming advanced imaging like a CT scan.
2
Interpret the adjunct primary survey diagnostics.
The FAST exam is positive for free intra-abdominal fluid.
In the setting of trauma and shock, free fluid on FAST represents hemorrhage until proven otherwise.
3
Determine the definitive management.
Immediate exploratory laparotomy is indicated.
An unstable patient with confirmed intra-abdominal bleeding requires emergent surgical source control.

Key Concept

Management of hemodynamically unstable blunt abdominal trauma
Question 214Question →

A male patient in his late sixties is assessed on the second morning after undergoing an elective laparotomy for recurrent diverticulitis. His vital signs show a temperature elevation to 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse of 88/min, respirations of 18/min, and blood pressure of 135/85 mm Hg. Auscultation reveals diminished aeration at both lung bases without any crackles or wheezes. The surgical wound appears to be healing well with no signs of induration, erythema, or purulent discharge. He reports that his abdominal pain is a 7 out of 10 and restricts him from taking deep breaths. Which of the following interventions are most appropriate at this time? (Select 2)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Promote targeted pulmonary expansion therapy; Titrate systemic or regional pain management regimens

Answer

The most appropriate next steps are to promote targeted pulmonary expansion therapy and titrate systemic or regional pain management regimens.
The correct options directly address the most common cause of fever on postoperative days 1 to 2, which is atelectasis. Patients undergoing major abdominal surgery often experience significant incisional pain, causing them to take shallow breaths (a phenomenon known as splinting). This leads to alveolar collapse and decreased clearance of airway secretions. Titrating pain management allows the patient to breathe deeply and cough effectively without severe discomfort. Concurrently, promoting pulmonary expansion therapy (such as using an incentive spirometer or doing deep breathing exercises) directly aids in recruiting collapsed alveoli, which resolves the atelectasis and suppresses the associated inflammatory response.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the timeline and vital signs of the postoperative patient.
The patient has an elevated temperature on postoperative day 2.
Determining the exact timing is crucial for identifying the most likely etiology of a postoperative fever.
2
Evaluate the clinical signs and symptoms in context.
The patient has severe abdominal pain (7/10), shallow breathing, and diminished breath sounds at the lung bases bilaterally.
Severe incisional pain from a laparotomy causes splinting, which leads to shallow breathing, alveolar collapse, and subsequent atelectasis.
3
Select the appropriate management based on the likely diagnosis of atelectasis.
The patient requires aggressive pulmonary hygiene and optimized pain control.
Adequate pain management allows the patient to take deeper breaths without severe discomfort, while pulmonary expansion therapy directly forces collapsed alveoli open.

Key Concept

Management of early postoperative fever and atelectasis
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 215Question →

Match each classic clinical presentation following acute trauma with its most likely associated diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds following penetrating chest trauma
Absent breath sounds, hyperresonance to percussion, and tracheal deviation following blunt chest trauma
Left lower rib fractures associated with referred pain to the left shoulder
Blood at the urethral meatus, scrotal hematoma, and a high-riding prostate on digital rectal exam

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds match with Cardiac tamponade. Absent breath sounds, hyperresonance to percussion, and tracheal deviation match with Tension pneumothorax. Left lower rib fractures with left shoulder pain match with Splenic laceration. Blood at the urethral meatus and high-riding prostate match with Posterior urethral injury.
Each clinical presentation perfectly aligns with its classic traumatic diagnosis. Beck's triad indicates cardiac tamponade. Unilateral absent breath sounds with hyperresonance and tracheal shift indicate tension pneumothorax. Left shoulder pain with left lower rib fractures indicates splenic rupture (Kehr sign). Blood at the urethral meatus with a high-riding prostate indicates a posterior urethral injury.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first clinical presentation (hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds).
Identify this as Beck's triad.
Beck's triad is pathognomonic for cardiac tamponade, especially after penetrating thoracic trauma.
2
Analyze the second presentation (absent breath sounds, hyperresonance, tracheal deviation).
Identify these as classic signs of tension pneumothorax.
Air trapping in the pleural space shifts the mediastinum and compresses the lungs and venous return.
3
Analyze the third presentation (left lower rib fractures, left shoulder pain).
Identify this as Kehr sign associated with splenic injury.
The spleen is located under the left lower ribs, and blood irritating the left hemidiaphragm causes referred pain to the shoulder via the phrenic nerve.
4
Analyze the fourth presentation (blood at meatus, high-riding prostate).
Identify this as a posterior urethral injury.
These are classic signs of urethral transection, making Foley catheter placement contraindicated until a retrograde urethrogram is performed.

Key Concept

Classic presentations of life-threatening and major organ trauma
Question 216Question →

A 59-year-old man is evaluated for a high fever one week after undergoing an elective partial colectomy with primary anastomosis for recurrent diverticulitis. He reports feeling generally unwell and has experienced nausea and worsening deep abdominal discomfort since yesterday. His temperature is 39.0°C (102.2°F), blood pressure is 122/76 mmHg, pulse is 108/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination demonstrates a slightly distended abdomen with localized tenderness in the left lower quadrant, but no generalized peritonitis. The surgical skin closure is intact, dry, and shows no surrounding redness or discharge. A complete blood count reveals a leukocyte count of 17,200/mm³. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Obtain a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis

Answer

Obtain a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
This patient presents with a high fever, tachycardia, marked leukocytosis, and localized abdominal pain one week following a partial colectomy. This clinical picture strongly suggests a deep intra-abdominal space infection or an anastomotic leak. The most appropriate next step is to obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast. A CT scan will reliably identify the presence, size, and exact location of an abscess, which can often subsequently be managed with percutaneous image-guided drainage rather than immediate reoperation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the timing and characteristics of the patient's postoperative fever.
The fever is occurring on postoperative day 7 and is associated with localized left lower quadrant abdominal tenderness.
The timeline of postoperative fever helps narrow down the differential diagnosis according to the '5 Ws'.
2
Identify the most likely etiology based on the surgical history and current symptoms.
An intra-abdominal abscess or anastomotic leak is highly suspected.
Colorectal surgery carries a high risk for deep space infections, which typically present 5 to 7 days postoperatively with systemic signs of infection and focal abdominal findings.
3
Determine the most appropriate next step in management to confirm the diagnosis.
A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is selected.
Cross-sectional imaging is required to visualize a deep intra-abdominal fluid collection and determine if it is amenable to percutaneous image-guided drainage.

Key Concept

Diagnosis of postoperative intra-abdominal abscess
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 217Question →

Paramedics arrive at the trauma center with a 34-year-old construction worker who fell approximately 20 feet from a roof. The patient is moaning and clutching his abdomen. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure is 82/45 mmHg, pulse is 128/min, and respirations are 22/min. Peripheral intravenous lines are placed, and fluid resuscitation is initiated. His airway is clear, and breath sounds are equal bilaterally. A bedside ultrasound evaluation of the abdomen demonstrates an anechoic fluid collection between the liver and right kidney. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Urgent surgical exploration of the abdomen

Answer

The correct course of action is to proceed with urgent surgical exploration of the abdomen to identify and control the source of bleeding.
The patient presents with blunt abdominal trauma, hemodynamic instability (hypotension, tachycardia), and a positive bedside ultrasound indicating intra-abdominal fluid (likely blood). In this scenario, the standard of care dictates immediate surgical exploration to identify and control the source of hemorrhage. Delaying for any other intervention or imaging is potentially fatal.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status based on vital signs.
The patient is hypotensive (blood pressure 82/45 mmHg) and tachycardic (pulse 128/min).
Vital signs indicate the patient is hemodynamically unstable and in hemorrhagic shock.
2
Evaluate the findings of the bedside ultrasound.
The focused ultrasound demonstrates free fluid in Morison's pouch.
A positive focused assessment with sonography for trauma in a hypotensive patient strongly suggests intra-abdominal hemorrhage as the cause of shock.
3
Determine the appropriate definitive management.
The patient requires immediate operative intervention.
Hemodynamically unstable patients with confirmed intra-abdominal bleeding require urgent surgical exploration to control the hemorrhage.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive ultrasound for free intra-abdominal fluid require immediate surgical exploration.
Question 218Question →

A 28-year-old male is brought to the emergency department immediately after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He is visibly distressed, tachycardic, and has multiple contusions on his chest and abdomen. According to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocol, arrange the following initial assessment and management steps in the correct chronological order.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence follows the ATLS primary survey protocol: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) primary survey dictates a strict chronological sequence to identify and treat the most lethal injuries first: Airway maintenance with cervical spine protection, Breathing and ventilation, Circulation with hemorrhage control, Disability (neurologic evaluation), and Exposure/Environmental control (ABCDE). Adhering to this specific order prevents premature focus on distracting injuries.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) primary survey algorithm.
The algorithm follows the sequential ABCDE mnemonic.
This standardized, chronological approach ensures that the most immediately life-threatening conditions are identified and treated first.
2
Map the provided clinical actions to their corresponding steps in the ABCDE algorithm.
Airway = establishing patency with c-spine restriction; Breathing = assessing breath sounds; Circulation = evaluating pulses and controlling hemorrhage; Disability = rapid neurological evaluation; Exposure = completely undressing the patient.
Accurate categorization of each clinical action allows for correct sequencing.
3
Order the mapped actions sequentially.
The sequence is established as Airway, followed by Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and finally Exposure.
This strictly follows the prioritization of physiological needs in trauma resuscitation.

Key Concept

Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) Primary Survey (ABCDE)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 219Question →

Match each of the following major cardiovascular conditions to its most characteristic clinical presentation and appropriate initial clinical context.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Stanford Type A Aortic Dissection
Stanford Type B Aortic Dissection
Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
Acute Limb Ischemia

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Stanford Type A is matched with anterior chest pain and a new diastolic murmur. Stanford Type B is matched with interscapular back pain managed medically. Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm is matched with abdominal pain, a pulsatile mass, and hypotension. Acute Limb Ischemia is matched with abrupt limb pain, pallor, and pulselessness.
Each vascular emergency has a distinct classic presentation that dictates its management. Type A dissections involve the ascending aorta, causing anterior chest pain and potential aortic regurgitation. Type B dissections affect the descending aorta, present with back pain, and are managed medically. Ruptured AAAs present with the classic triad of hypotension, back pain, and a pulsatile mass. Acute limb ischemia presents with sudden cessation of blood flow leading to the 6 Ps.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the anatomical and clinical hallmarks of Stanford Type A aortic dissection.
Identified as involving the ascending aorta, which can affect the aortic valve (causing a new diastolic murmur) and arch vessels (causing a blood pressure discrepancy).
To correctly map the condition to its classic presentation and distinguish it from descending aortic disease.
2
Analyze the management and presentation of Stanford Type B aortic dissection.
Identified as involving the descending aorta, presenting with interscapular back pain, and generally managed with strict blood pressure and heart rate control.
To differentiate it from ascending aortic involvement, which requires emergent surgery.
3
Identify the classic triad for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Matched with severe abdominal or back pain, a pulsatile mass, and profound hypotension.
To recognize this catastrophic intra-abdominal vascular emergency.
4
Recall the classic signs of acute arterial occlusion.
Matched with abrupt limb pain, pallor, poikilothermia, paresthesias, and pulselessness.
To correctly identify acute limb ischemia.

Key Concept

Distinguishing major vascular emergencies based on their classic clinical presentation and anatomical location is critical for determining appropriate emergent management.
Question 220Question →

While on call for the surgical ward, you are urgently called to the bedside of a patient who underwent an open exploratory laparotomy six days ago. The patient had a severe coughing fit and reported feeling a sudden 'popping' sensation in the abdomen. On examination, the surgical dressing is saturated with serosanguinous fluid. When you carefully lift the dressing, you observe that the fascial layer has separated and loops of small intestine are protruding onto the abdominal wall. Arrange the following immediate management steps in the most appropriate chronological order.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological management of wound evisceration is to first reduce abdominal tension by positioning the patient with flexed knees, followed immediately by covering the exposed viscera with sterile, saline-moistened dressings. Next, the surgical team must be notified to prepare the operating room, and finally, the patient is transported for definitive surgical closure.
Wound evisceration is a surgical emergency requiring immediate and systematic intervention. The first goal is to prevent worsening of the condition by reducing intra-abdominal pressure (positioning). The second goal is organ preservation by preventing the exposed bowel from drying out (saline dressings). Once stabilized at the bedside, the team must coordinate definitive care (calling the OR) and then execute it (transporting the patient).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the patient with flexed hips and knees.
Decreased tension on the abdominal wall fascia.
Reduces intra-abdominal pressure to prevent additional bowel from herniating through the defect.
2
Apply warm, sterile, saline-soaked dressings over the evisceration.
The exposed bowel remains moist and protected.
Prevents tissue desiccation, ischemia, and further contamination of the exposed serosa.
3
Notify the operating room and surgical team.
Surgical resources are mobilized.
Evisceration is an absolute surgical emergency requiring definitive operative closure.
4
Transport the patient to the operating room.
Patient arrives in a sterile environment for surgery.
Definitive management involves washing out the abdomen and securely closing the fascial defect under general anesthesia.

Key Concept

Immediate sequential management of postoperative wound evisceration
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