Surgery

1344 questions

Question 741Question →

A 68-year-old female is evaluated on postoperative day 5 following a robotic-assisted hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for endometrial cancer. She reports a 2-hour history of sudden-onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain that worsens when she takes a deep breath. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and obesity. Her current medications include subcutaneous enoxaparin and oral oxycodone as needed. Temperature is 38.2∘C38.2^\circ\text{C} (100.8∘F100.8^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, pulse is 114/min, and respirations are 24/min. Pulse oximetry shows 92% on room air. Physical examination reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally and a regular, rapid heart rhythm. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, and the surgical incisions are well-approximated with no erythema. There is no lower extremity edema or calf tenderness. Electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Computed tomography angiography of the chest

Answer

Computed tomography angiography of the chest
This patient's presentation of sudden-onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, hypoxia, and low-grade fever on postoperative day 5 is highly suspicious for a pulmonary embolism (PE). Fever is a common, often overlooked manifestation of PE due to tissue infarction and inflammation. The classic timeline for postoperative deep vein thrombosis and PE is between days 4 and 6 (the 'Walking' phase of the 5 W's of postoperative fever). Because the patient is hemodynamically stable, the most appropriate next step in management is diagnostic imaging with computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the chest.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the timing of the fever and patient presentation
The patient has a low-grade fever, tachycardia, hypoxia, and pleuritic chest pain on postoperative day 5.
Establishing the postoperative day helps narrow down the differential diagnosis using the '5 Ws' of postoperative fever.
2
Correlate symptoms with the postoperative timeline
Postoperative day 5 falls into the 'Walking' phase, making deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE) highly likely, especially given the classic triad of sudden dyspnea, pleuritic pain, and tachycardia.
Fever is a frequently overlooked symptom of PE resulting from tissue infarction and local inflammation.
3
Determine the appropriate diagnostic approach
The patient is hemodynamically stable (blood pressure 118/76 mmHg), meaning diagnostic imaging can be safely performed.
In a hemodynamically stable patient with a high clinical suspicion for PE, computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the chest is the gold standard next step.

Key Concept

Postoperative pulmonary embolism typically presents around postoperative days 4-6 and can manifest with low-grade fever alongside sudden dyspnea, tachycardia, and pleuritic chest pain. Hemodynamically stable patients should be evaluated with CT pulmonary angiography.
Question 742Question →

A 58-year-old woman is recovering on the surgical ward on postoperative day 7 following an open abdominal hysterectomy. She experiences a severe coughing fit, after which she reports a sudden 'giving way' sensation in her abdomen. Examination reveals complete separation of the surgical incision with loops of small bowel protruding through the wound. Arrange the following steps for the immediate management of this complication in the most appropriate chronological order.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is: 1) Instruct the patient to remain supine, 2) Cover the exposed bowel with sterile, saline-soaked dressings, 3) Notify the surgical and anesthesia teams, and 4) Transport the patient to the operating room for emergent closure.
Wound evisceration is a surgical emergency characterized by the full-thickness dehiscence of the abdominal fascia with protrusion of intra-abdominal organs. The algorithmic priority is to prevent further damage while expediting definitive surgical repair. The patient must first be kept supine to reduce intra-abdominal pressure, halting further evisceration. Immediately afterward, the exposed bowel must be covered with sterile, saline-soaked dressings to prevent tissue necrosis and drying. Only after the bowel is protected should the clinician leave the bedside or delegate the task to notify the surgical and anesthesia teams. Finally, the patient is urgently transferred to the operating room, where the bowel can be safely reduced and the fascia closed under general anesthesia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Instruct the patient to remain supine in bed.
Minimizes intra-abdominal pressure.
Prevents further extrusion of the bowel and protects against ongoing mechanical injury.
2
Cover the eviscerated bowel with sterile, saline-moistened dressings.
Bowel loops are protected from the external environment.
Prevents rapid tissue desiccation, ischemia, and gross environmental contamination.
3
Notify the surgical and anesthesia teams.
Operating room preparations begin.
Surgical evisceration is a mechanical failure that requires definitive operative management; mobilizing the team quickly saves vital time.
4
Transport the patient to the operating room.
Patient arrives in the OR for emergent fascial closure.
The fascial defect must be surgically repaired and the bowel formally inspected and safely reduced under controlled anesthesia.

Key Concept

Immediate bedside management of postoperative wound evisceration
Question 743Question →

A 35-year-old previously healthy gentleman arrives at the triage desk reporting severe, unremitting abdominal pain accompanied by multiple episodes of bilious vomiting over the past 12 hours. He has not had a bowel movement or passed flatus since the pain began. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse is 118/min, and blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a markedly distended abdomen with absent bowel sounds. Palpation of the groin demonstrates a 4-cm, firm, erythematous, and exquisitely tender bulge in the right inguinal region. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 19,000/mm³ with 85% neutrophils and a serum lactate level of 4.2 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Immediate operative intervention

Answer

Immediate operative intervention
The correct answer is immediate operative intervention because the patient exhibits definitive signs of a strangulated small bowel obstruction due to an inguinal hernia. The presence of a systemic inflammatory response (fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis), tissue hypoperfusion (elevated lactate), and local inflammatory changes (erythematous and exquisitely tender bulge) indicates compromised intestinal blood flow. In this scenario, emergency surgical exploration is required to release the obstruction, assess bowel viability, and resect necrotic segments.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical problem from the physical exam and history.
The patient presents with symptoms of a small bowel obstruction (vomiting, distension, obstipation) and a firm, tender inguinal bulge.
This constellation of findings points directly to an incarcerated inguinal hernia as the etiology of the mechanical obstruction.
2
Evaluate the patient's vitals and labs for signs of complications (strangulation or ischemia).
The patient exhibits fever, tachycardia, overlying skin erythema, marked leukocytosis, and an elevated serum lactate level.
These are classic, unmistakable signs that the incarcerated bowel has lost its blood supply and is ischemic or necrotic.
3
Determine the most appropriate management based on the presence of strangulation.
The correct course of action is emergency operative exploration.
When a bowel obstruction is complicated by strangulation, conservative measures and diagnostic delays must be avoided to prevent perforation and severe sepsis.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with a small bowel obstruction complicated by clinical signs of strangulation (e.g., fever, tachycardia, localized peritonitis, erythema, leukocytosis, elevated lactate) require immediate surgical exploration.
Question 744Question →

A 48-year-old woman is assessed in the intensive care unit due to persistent hypotension. Five hours ago, she underwent an uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic cholelithiasis. Her medical history includes severe rheumatoid arthritis, for which she has taken daily oral prednisone for the past three years. She reports that she abruptly stopped all her medications five days before the procedure to "clear her system for anesthesia."

Upon admission to the unit, her blood pressure was 82/44 mmHg and her pulse was 118/min. She was administered 3 L of intravenous normal saline, but her repeat blood pressure remains 78/42 mmHg. Current temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 124/min, and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination shows a lethargic patient who arouses to voice. The abdomen is soft and mildly tender at the surgical port sites, with no guarding or rigidity.

Laboratory studies show:
- Sodium: 130 mEq/L
- Potassium: 4.1 mEq/L
- Chloride: 97 mEq/L
- Bicarbonate: 22 mEq/L
- Blood urea nitrogen: 18 mg/dL
- Serum creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL
- Glucose: 58 mg/dL
- Leukocyte count: 10,500/mm³

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administration of intravenous hydrocortisone

Answer

The correct answer is the administration of intravenous hydrocortisone.
This patient is experiencing an acute adrenal crisis triggered by the stress of surgery in the setting of abrupt cessation of chronic exogenous glucocorticoids. Chronic prednisone therapy suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. When these medications are stopped suddenly, the adrenal glands cannot produce sufficient cortisol to meet the increased physiological demands of surgical stress. This lack of cortisol leads to fluid-refractory hypotension (as cortisol provides a necessary permissive effect on vascular smooth muscle responsiveness to catecholamines), hypoglycemia (due to decreased gluconeogenesis), and hyponatremia (due to unsuppressed antidiuretic hormone secretion). Potassium levels typically remain normal in secondary adrenal insufficiency because aldosterone production is governed primarily by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, not ACTH. The immediate and life-saving next step is the administration of high-dose intravenous glucocorticoids, such as hydrocortisone or dexamethasone, alongside aggressive fluid resuscitation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's history and vital signs.
The patient has fluid-refractory hypotension, tachycardia, and a mild fever hours after surgery, in the context of abruptly stopping chronic prednisone therapy.
Identifying the clinical syndrome of shock and its potential triggers is the first step in management.
2
Evaluate the laboratory findings.
Labs reveal hypoglycemia and mild hyponatremia, with a normal potassium level.
These metabolic derangements strongly suggest secondary acute adrenal insufficiency, as aldosterone (and thus potassium regulation) remains intact.
3
Determine the most appropriate immediate intervention.
Administer intravenous hydrocortisone.
Immediate glucocorticoid replacement is required to restore vascular tone and correct the life-threatening metabolic abnormalities of an adrenal crisis.

Key Concept

Patients who abruptly stop chronic exogenous glucocorticoids are at high risk for acute adrenal crisis during stressful events like surgery, presenting with fluid-refractory shock, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia; the immediate treatment is intravenous glucocorticoids.
Question 745Question →

A 38-year-old female is evaluated in the emergency department after a low-speed collision in which her bicycle was struck by a turning vehicle. She was wearing a helmet and reports no loss of consciousness. She complains primarily of left-sided abdominal pain and left shoulder pain. Upon arrival, her blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg, heart rate is 88/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The primary survey is unremarkable. Physical examination reveals bruising over the left lower ribs. Abdominal examination demonstrates mild left upper quadrant tenderness but no rebound or guarding. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates a distinct rim of anechoic fluid surrounding the spleen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast

Answer

Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast is the correct next step because the patient is hemodynamically stable, allowing for safe anatomic localization and grading of the intra-abdominal injury.
The correct action is to obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast. The management of blunt abdominal trauma hinges primarily on the patient's hemodynamic status. This patient has evidence of intra-abdominal hemorrhage (a positive FAST exam) but maintains normal blood pressure and heart rate. According to trauma algorithms, hemodynamically stable patients with a positive FAST should proceed to a CT scan. This imaging modality precisely localizes the injury, grades solid organ damage, detects active extravasation, and evaluates for hollow viscus injury, allowing the surgical team to determine if nonoperative management is safe or if angioembolization/surgery is required.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's hemodynamic status.
The patient's vital signs (BP 122/78 mm Hg, HR 88/min) demonstrate clear hemodynamic stability.
Stability determines whether the patient can safely be transported to the radiology suite for advanced imaging or requires immediate operative intervention.
2
Interpret the adjuncts to the primary survey.
The FAST examination reveals free intraperitoneal fluid (hemoperitoneum), likely from a splenic injury given the left upper quadrant tenderness and left shoulder pain (Kehr's sign).
Identifying fluid confirms intra-abdominal injury, shifting the management algorithm toward defining the extent of that injury.
3
Select the appropriate diagnostic pathway based on the ATLS algorithm.
A hemodynamically stable patient with a positive FAST must undergo a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast.
CT imaging safely defines the exact organ injured, grades the severity, identifies active arterial extravasation, and rules out associated injuries, which guides whether management should be surgical, angiographic, or observational.

Key Concept

In blunt abdominal trauma, hemodynamically stable patients with a positive FAST exam should undergo CT scanning of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast to define the anatomy and severity of the injury.
Question 746Question →

As a trauma and burn unit leader, you are tasked with managing multiple complex clinical scenarios simultaneously. Match each specific patient presentation to the most appropriate immediate diagnostic or therapeutic intervention.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

An adult driver involved in a high-speed deceleration collision, currently hemodynamically stable, whose initial chest radiograph reveals rightward deviation of the nasogastric tube, widened mediastinum, and apical capping.
A severe burn victim on hospital day two receiving aggressive fluid resuscitation, who develops new-onset oliguria, peak airway pressures of 45 cm H2O, and a tense, distended abdomen.
An individual with circumferential full-thickness thermal injuries to the right lower extremity, who begins to experience severe pain with passive toe extension and decreased distal sensation, despite having palpable pedal pulses.
A pedestrian struck by a vehicle sustaining an 'open-book' pelvic fracture, remaining persistently hypotensive despite the application of a pelvic binder, blood transfusion, and a negative focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) examination.
A victim of penetrating chest trauma to the left parasternal region who loses palpable pulses upon arrival to the trauma bay, but exhibited signs of life at the scene and currently shows organized electrical activity on the cardiac monitor.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Each specific clinical presentation requires a precise, protocol-driven intervention: CTA chest for stable suspected aortic injury, bladder pressure measurement for burn-induced abdominal compartment syndrome, escharotomy for impending limb ischemia, angiography/packing for arterial pelvic hemorrhage, and ED thoracotomy for penetrating thoracic arrest.
Each trauma presentation describes a critical branch point in ATLS or burn protocols. Success relies on recognizing subtle pathophysiologic shifts—such as early compartment syndrome, retroperitoneal versus intraperitoneal bleeding, or appropriate utilization of ED thoracotomy—and applying the exact corresponding diagnostic or therapeutic tool.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the deceleration injury presentation.
Identified signs of blunt aortic injury in a stable patient.
Apical capping and rightward deviation of the nasogastric tube require definitive imaging with CTA before operative intervention.
2
Evaluate the complication during burn fluid resuscitation.
Identified suspected abdominal compartment syndrome.
Massive third-spacing into the peritoneal cavity increases intra-abdominal pressure, causing organ dysfunction (oliguria, elevated airway pressures); it must be confirmed via bladder transducer.
3
Assess the circumferential burn presentation.
Identified early extremity compartment syndrome.
Pain out of proportion and exacerbated by passive stretch necessitates escharotomy; waiting for absent pulses leads to limb loss.
4
Analyze the unstable pelvic fracture scenario.
Identified retroperitoneal arterial hemorrhage.
A negative FAST effectively rules out significant intraperitoneal bleeding. Ongoing shock despite a binder directs management toward addressing arterial sources via angiography or packing.
5
Evaluate the penetrating traumatic arrest.
Identified the indication for resuscitative thoracotomy.
Penetrating trauma causing loss of pulses but with recent signs of life and organized rhythm provides a narrow window for survival via direct surgical relief of tamponade or hemorrhage control.

Key Concept

Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) Protocols and Burn Complication Management
Question 747Question →

A 4848-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife due to sudden-onset, agonizing abdominal pain that began 22 hours ago. He reports no prior episodes of similar pain but has a history of chronic knee osteoarthritis, for which he takes high-dose naproxen daily. His temperature is 38.3∘C38.3^\circ\text{C} (100.9∘F100.9^\circ\text{F}), pulse is 118/min118/\text{min}, blood pressure is 90/58 mm Hg90/58\text{ mm Hg}, and respirations are 22/min22/\text{min}. The patient appears distressed and lies completely still on the examination table, refusing to move. Physical examination reveals a rigid, board-like abdomen with diffuse guarding and rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent. An upright chest radiograph demonstrates a crescent of free air under the right hemidiaphragm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Urgent exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Urgent exploratory laparotomy is the required immediate intervention for a patient with a perforated viscus, peritonitis, and hemodynamic instability.
This patient's presentation of sudden-onset, severe abdominal pain, a rigid abdomen, and pneumoperitoneum (free air under the diaphragm) on an upright chest radiograph is highly characteristic of a perforated viscus, most likely a perforated peptic ulcer given his chronic NSAID use. The presence of hemodynamic instability (hypotension, tachycardia) and diffuse peritonitis dictates that the patient requires immediate fluid resuscitation followed by urgent exploratory laparotomy for definitive surgical repair and peritoneal washout.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary diagnosis from the clinical and radiographic findings.
The patient's sudden-onset pain, chronic NSAID use, rigid abdomen, and free air under the diaphragm strongly point to a perforated peptic ulcer.
NSAIDs impair gastric mucosal protection, predisposing to ulceration and eventual full-thickness perforation, which releases air and gastric contents into the peritoneum.
2
Assess the severity of the patient's condition and hemodynamic status.
The patient exhibits signs of systemic toxicity and hemodynamic instability (tachycardia, hypotension, fever) along with diffuse peritonitis (rigid, board-like abdomen).
These findings indicate an acute surgical emergency where the peritoneal cavity is heavily contaminated, leading to third-spacing and early septic shock.
3
Determine the most appropriate definitive intervention based on surgical guidelines.
Immediate surgical exploration (laparotomy) is indicated to seal the leak and wash out the abdominal cavity.
A perforated viscus with peritonitis and instability cannot be managed conservatively or delayed for further imaging; emergent operative source control is life-saving.

Key Concept

A perforated viscus presenting with pneumoperitoneum, diffuse peritonitis, and hemodynamic instability is an absolute surgical emergency that requires immediate exploratory laparotomy without delay for advanced imaging.
Question 748Question →

Match each classic trauma or burn presentation to its most appropriate definitive intervention or next step in management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma and free fluid in the hepatorenal recess
Hypotensive trauma patient with unilaterally absent breath sounds, hyperresonance, and tracheal deviation
Circumferential full-thickness burn to the arm with progressive loss of distal pulses and decreased capillary refill
Hemodynamically stable patient with a pelvic ring fracture and contrast extravasation seen on computed tomography

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Blunt trauma + positive FAST -> Laparotomy; Tension pneumothorax -> Thoracostomy; Circumferential burn with pulse loss -> Escharotomy; Stable pelvic fracture with extravasation -> Angioembolization.
Each presentation requires a specific, definitive intervention. Unstable blunt trauma with positive FAST indicates hemorrhagic shock from intra-abdominal injury, necessitating exploratory laparotomy. Tracheal deviation and hyperresonance in a hypotensive patient point to tension pneumothorax, requiring immediate decompression. Loss of pulses in a circumferential burn signifies compartment syndrome, treated by escharotomy. Contrast extravasation in a stable pelvic fracture points to arterial bleeding, which is best addressed with angioembolization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each clinical presentation to determine the primary life-threatening or limb-threatening issue.
Identified intra-abdominal bleeding, tension pneumothorax, burn-induced compartment syndrome, and pelvic arterial hemorrhage.
Accurate diagnosis of the specific trauma pathology dictates the appropriate immediate intervention.
2
Match the identified pathology with the standard ATLS guideline intervention.
Matched each presentation to laparotomy, decompression, escharotomy, and embolization respectively.
Standardized trauma protocols ensure rapid and definitive management of critical injuries.

Key Concept

Standard management of life-threatening and limb-threatening injuries in trauma and burn patients
Question 749Question →

During a trauma surgery conference, a team reviews the intraoperative management algorithms for retroperitoneal hematomas discovered during emergency exploratory laparotomies. The attending surgeon emphasizes that the decision to open and explore a hematoma depends critically on its anatomical zone and the mechanism of injury. Match each specific clinical scenario involving a retroperitoneal hematoma with the most appropriate intraoperative management strategy.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A large centromedial (Zone 1) retroperitoneal hematoma discovered during laparotomy for a high-speed motor vehicle collision.
A stable, non-expanding lateral (Zone 2) retroperitoneal hematoma discovered during laparotomy after a 20-foot fall.
A lateral (Zone 2) retroperitoneal hematoma discovered during laparotomy for a stab wound to the left flank.
An expanding pelvic (Zone 3) retroperitoneal hematoma discovered during laparotomy in a hypotensive patient with a crushed pelvis.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Zone 1 hematomas (blunt or penetrating) require exploration. Zone 2 hematomas require exploration if penetrating, but observation if blunt and non-expanding. Zone 3 hematomas from blunt trauma should not be explored; they require pelvic packing or angioembolization.
The correct matches reflect the standard ATLS operative algorithms for retroperitoneal hematomas. Zone 1 (centromedial) hematomas are explored regardless of mechanism due to high risk of major vascular or pancreaticoduodenal injury. Zone 2 (flank) hematomas are explored for penetrating trauma, but observed for blunt trauma if non-expanding. Zone 3 (pelvic) hematomas from blunt trauma are treated with packing or angioembolization, as surgical exploration destroys the tamponade effect and worsens bleeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the anatomical zones of the retroperitoneum.
Zone 1 is centromedial, Zone 2 is lateral/flank, and Zone 3 is pelvic.
The anatomical structures contained within each zone dictate the risk of life-threatening injury.
2
Determine the management for Zone 1 hematomas.
Zone 1 hematomas harbor critical vascular and pancreaticoduodenal structures, mandating exploration regardless of the injury mechanism.
Injuries to the aorta or IVC can rapidly exsanguinate the patient, and missed duodenal/pancreatic injuries carry extremely high morbidity.
3
Differentiate Zone 2 management based on the mechanism of injury.
Blunt trauma is observed if non-expanding due to effective natural tamponade. Penetrating trauma requires exploration.
Penetrating trauma has a high risk of hollow viscus or renal tract injury that requires definitive surgical repair.
4
Determine the management for Zone 3 hematomas in the setting of blunt trauma.
They are managed with extra-peritoneal packing or angioembolization. Direct exploration is avoided.
Zone 3 bleeding is primarily venous from the presacral plexus. Opening the hematoma removes the natural tamponade, risking fatal exsanguination.

Key Concept

Intraoperative management of retroperitoneal hematomas based on anatomical zone and mechanism of injury.
Question 750Question →

A thorough physical examination is critical in evaluating patients presenting with an acute abdomen or jaundice. Match each classic physical examination finding with the most likely associated abdominal pathology.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Inspiratory arrest upon deep palpation of the right upper quadrant
Referred pain to the left shoulder, particularly when lying supine
Right lower quadrant pain elicited by deep palpation of the left lower quadrant
Palpable, non-tender gallbladder in a patient with painless jaundice

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Inspiratory arrest matches Acute cholecystitis (Murphy sign); Left shoulder pain matches Splenic rupture (Kehr sign); RLQ pain on LLQ palpation matches Acute appendicitis (Rovsing sign); Palpable non-tender gallbladder matches Pancreatic head adenocarcinoma (Courvoisier sign).
Each physical exam finding uniquely corresponds to a specific pathophysiology: acute gallbladder inflammation (Murphy sign), diaphragmatic irritation from splenic bleeding (Kehr sign), localized peritonitis (Rovsing sign), and malignant distal biliary obstruction causing slow dilatation (Courvoisier sign).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first finding: Inspiratory arrest on right upper quadrant palpation.
This is Murphy's sign.
It indicates localized peritonitis due to gallbladder inflammation rubbing against the anterior abdominal wall during a deep breath.
2
Analyze the second finding: Referred left shoulder pain.
This is Kehr's sign.
It is caused by phrenic nerve irritation from free intraperitoneal blood, which is most common following a splenic rupture.
3
Analyze the third finding: Right lower quadrant pain on left lower quadrant palpation.
This is Rovsing's sign.
Palpating the left lower quadrant increases pressure and stretches the peritoneum, causing pain in the inflamed right lower quadrant overlying the appendix.
4
Analyze the fourth finding: Palpable non-tender gallbladder with painless jaundice.
This is Courvoisier's sign.
It indicates a slow, malignant obstruction of the common bile duct (such as from pancreatic cancer), allowing the gallbladder to dilate without the acute inflammation seen in gallstone disease.

Key Concept

Classic physical examination eponyms in gastrointestinal surgery are highly specific for particular intra-abdominal pathologies and are crucial for guiding the initial diagnostic workup.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 751Question →

A 7272-year-old man is evaluated on the surgical floor due to fever and abdominal discomfort. He underwent an open partial colectomy for a large adenomatous polyp four days ago. His indwelling urinary catheter, which was placed during surgery, was removed yesterday morning. The patient now reports new-onset burning with urination and a feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. His temperature is 38.5∘C38.5^\circ\text{C} (101.3∘F101.3^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg128/78\text{ mmHg}, pulse is 92/min92/\text{min}, and respiratory rate is 16/min16/\text{min}. Physical examination reveals a soft abdomen with mild suprapubic tenderness but no guarding or rebound. The surgical incision is clean, dry, and intact with no surrounding erythema or fluctuance. Lung auscultation is clear bilaterally. Examination of the lower extremities shows no edema or calf tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's fever?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Urinalysis and urine culture

Answer

Urinalysis and urine culture
The correct action is to obtain a urinalysis and urine culture. Postoperative fever is traditionally evaluated using the '5 Ws' mnemonic, which correlates the timing of the fever with the most likely source. Fevers occurring on postoperative days 3 to 5 are most commonly caused by urinary tract infections (UTIs) ('Water'), particularly in patients who had an indwelling urinary catheter. This patient's presentation precisely matches this timeline, and his localized symptoms of dysuria and suprapubic tenderness strongly confirm a suspected UTI. Diagnostic confirmation via urinalysis and culture is the necessary next step before initiating targeted therapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's postoperative timeline.
The patient is currently on postoperative day 4.
The timing of postoperative fever is highly predictive of its underlying etiology based on the classic '5 Ws'.
2
Evaluate the clinical signs and symptoms.
The patient has dysuria, suprapubic tenderness, and a history of recent indwelling catheter removal. Incision, lungs, and calves are normal.
Localizing symptoms narrow down the source of the fever.
3
Match the timeline and symptoms to the correct postoperative fever etiology.
Fever on postoperative days 3-5 with urinary symptoms indicates a urinary tract infection (Water).
UTIs are the most common cause of fever during this specific postoperative window, especially following catheterization.
4
Determine the next best diagnostic step.
A urinalysis and urine culture should be ordered.
Diagnostic confirmation and sensitivity profiling are required before starting antibiotic therapy in a stable patient.

Key Concept

The timing of postoperative fever correlates heavily with its cause: Wind (atelectasis/pneumonia, days 1-2), Water (UTI, days 3-5), Wound (SSI, days 5-7), and Walking (DVT, days 5-7).
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 752Question →

Match each clinical presentation of gastrointestinal obstruction or distension with its most likely specific etiology or anatomical mechanism.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A patient with a history of a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass presents with acute, severe periumbilical pain. Computed tomography reveals a 'swirl sign' of the mesenteric root and a clustered segment of dilated small bowel.
A young adult with a recent history of rapid, profound weight loss presents with persistent postprandial bilious emesis and early satiety. Upper gastrointestinal series shows an abrupt linear compression of the transverse duodenum.
A patient with a history of an exploratory laparotomy presents with sudden, unrelenting abdominal pain. Imaging displays a U-shaped, fluid-filled distended bowel segment with a 'beak sign' indicating two adjacent points of obstruction.
An adult with no prior surgical history presents with colicky abdominal pain and guaiac-positive stools. Computed tomography demonstrates a bowel-within-bowel 'target sign' in the right lower quadrant surrounding a distinct mass.
A hospitalized patient recovering from a femur fracture repair and receiving scheduled opioids develops a massively dilated cecum and ascending colon; however, imaging demonstrates no transition point or physical blockage.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The presentations match as follows: the post-gastric bypass patient with a 'swirl sign' has an internal hernia; the rapidly weight-losing patient has SMA syndrome; the 'beak sign' with unrelenting pain indicates a closed-loop obstruction; the 'target sign' in an adult indicates an intussusception with a lead point; and the postoperative massive cecal dilation without blockage is Ogilvie syndrome.
Each clinical presentation contains classic hallmark signs linking the patient's history and imaging to a distinct mechanism of obstruction: iatrogenic mesenteric defects for Petersen's hernia, loss of the aortomesenteric fat pad for SMA syndrome, dual-point adhesive trapping for closed-loop obstruction, a pathologic lead point for adult intussusception, and autonomic dysregulation for Ogilvie syndrome.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the surgical history and radiographic findings for the Roux-en-Y gastric bypass patient.
The 'swirl sign' indicates mesenteric twisting through an iatrogenic defect.
Roux-en-Y bypass creates Petersen's space, putting the patient at high risk for an internal hernia.
2
Evaluate the young adult with rapid weight loss and transverse duodenal compression.
Identified as superior mesenteric artery (SMA) syndrome.
Loss of the mesenteric fat pad reduces the aortomesenteric angle, mechanically compressing the duodenum.
3
Assess the unrelenting pain and 'beak sign' in the patient with a prior laparotomy.
Corresponds to an adhesive closed-loop small bowel obstruction.
An adhesive band trapping the bowel at two adjacent points creates a closed loop, rapidly leading to ischemia and unrelenting pain.
4
Correlate the 'target sign' and lower gastrointestinal bleeding in an adult without prior surgery.
Matches adult-onset intussusception.
Adult intussusception is almost exclusively caused by a pathologic, often neoplastic, lead point that pulls the bowel into itself.
5
Diagnose the massive colonic distension in the postoperative orthopedic patient.
Identified as acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (Ogilvie syndrome).
The absence of a mechanical transition point combined with severe systemic illness and opioid use points to autonomic dysregulation of the colon.

Key Concept

Differential diagnosis of surgical gastrointestinal obstructions and distensions based on anatomic landmarks and specific radiologic signs.
Question 753Question →

Match each patient's clinical presentation following trauma with the most appropriate next step in diagnosis or management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 32-year-old man presents with a stab wound to zone II of the neck, an expanding pulsatile hematoma, and a muffled voice.
A 45-year-old woman involved in a high-speed frontal motor vehicle collision is hemodynamically stable but has a widened mediastinum on an initial portable chest x-ray.
A 22-year-old man falls from a 20-foot roof, presenting with a pelvic fracture, a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, and gross blood at the urethral meatus.
A 55-year-old man is hypotensive (blood pressure 75/40 mm Hg) after a motorcycle crash; primary survey reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally and a positive focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) exam.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Proper management requires identifying immediate life threats for operative intervention versus stable presentations requiring further diagnostic imaging.
Each correct pairing strictly follows ATLS guidelines, which prioritize immediate surgical control of hemorrhage for unstable patients and targeted diagnostics for stable patients with specific injury patterns.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the hemodynamic stability of the patient in each scenario.
Determines whether the patient can safely undergo advanced imaging or requires immediate surgical intervention.
Hemodynamically unstable patients cannot be safely transported to a CT scanner and require immediate hemorrhage control.
2
Identify specific 'hard signs' or classic physical exam findings.
Guides the specific intervention (e.g., retrograde urethrography instead of Foley catheterization for meatal blood).
Prevents iatrogenic injury and ensures adherence to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols.

Key Concept

ATLS Protocols and Next Best Step in Trauma
Question 754Question →

A 55-year-old female patient with a body mass index of 34 kg/m² is evaluated during morning rounds on her second day recovering from an elective open abdominal hysterectomy. Her vital signs show a temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg, heart rate of 88/min, and respiratory rate of 16/min. Physical examination reveals mildly decreased breath sounds at the lung bases bilaterally without wheezes or crackles. The surgical dressing is clean, and the wound edges are well-approximated with no surrounding warmth or induration. The patient is voiding spontaneously without dysuria, and her calves are soft and non-tender. Which of the following are the most appropriate management steps for this patient? (Select 2)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Encourage frequent use of a volume-oriented breathing device; Assist the patient with getting out of bed and walking in the hallway

Answer

The most appropriate management steps are to encourage frequent use of a volume-oriented breathing device (incentive spirometry) and assist the patient with early ambulation.
The patient is presenting with a low-grade fever on postoperative day 2, which is classically associated with atelectasis ('Wind' in the '5 Ws' mnemonic) and the physiologic inflammatory response to tissue trauma. The presence of decreased breath sounds at the lung bases supports this diagnosis. The most appropriate initial management for early postoperative atelectasis involves non-pharmacologic pulmonary toilet, which includes the use of incentive spirometry and early ambulation to promote deep breathing, recruit collapsed alveoli, and clear airway secretions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the timing and characteristics of the patient's fever.
The patient has a low-grade fever on postoperative day 2, which corresponds to the 'Wind' phase of the classic postoperative fever timeline (days 1-2).
Establishing the postoperative day helps narrow down the most likely etiology of the fever.
2
Evaluate the physical examination findings.
The patient has decreased breath sounds at the bases, suggesting atelectasis, and lacks signs of wound infection, urinary tract infection, or deep vein thrombosis.
Physical findings confirm atelectasis and rule out more serious focal infections.
3
Determine the appropriate management.
Management should consist of non-pharmacologic interventions targeting lung expansion, specifically incentive spirometry and early mobilization.
Atelectasis and physiologic inflammation are self-limiting and respond well to mechanical lung expansion; antibiotics are not required.

Key Concept

Low-grade fever on postoperative days 1-2 is typically due to physiologic inflammation and atelectasis, which should be managed with early ambulation and incentive spirometry, avoiding unnecessary antibiotics or invasive workups in asymptomatic patients.
Question 755Question →

A 67-year-old woman is evaluated by the rapid response team on the medical-surgical floor due to sudden clinical deterioration. She was admitted 24 hours ago for a partial small bowel obstruction secondary to severe adhesive disease from a prior open colectomy. Initial conservative management included intravenous fluid resuscitation and nasogastric tube decompression, which yielded 800 mL of bilious output. Over the last hour, she developed severe, unrelenting, constant lower abdominal pain, which is a significant change from her previous intermittent, cramping pain. Her vital signs are temperature 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure 92/58 mm Hg, pulse 122/min, and respirations 24/min. Physical examination now reveals a distended, exquisitely tender abdomen with marked rigidity and rebound tenderness in the lower quadrants. Laboratory studies demonstrate a leukocyte count of 18,400/mm³ with 12% bands, and a serum lactate of 4.1 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Immediate exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Immediate exploratory laparotomy
The correct response is immediate exploratory laparotomy. This patient initially presented with a partial small bowel obstruction and was appropriately triaged to a conservative management pathway. However, her clinical picture has abruptly deteriorated. The transition of her pain from colicky/cramping to severe and constant, combined with the development of systemic inflammatory response (fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis with a left shift), hemodynamic instability (hypotension), metabolic derangement (lactic acidosis), and peritonitis (rigidity, rebound tenderness) are classic signs of a strangulated small bowel obstruction. Strangulation occurs when the blood supply to the obstructed bowel segment is compromised, leading to ischemia, necrosis, and eventual perforation. Once clinical signs of strangulation or peritonitis are present, conservative management must be immediately abandoned. Urgent surgical exploration is required to resect any necrotic bowel and restore gastrointestinal continuity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the initial presentation and management plan.
The patient initially presented with an uncomplicated adhesive small bowel obstruction and was appropriately managed with conservative measures (bowel rest, nasogastric tube, intravenous fluids).
Establishing the baseline helps accurately interpret the significance of the subsequent clinical changes.
2
Analyze the change in the patient's clinical status.
The patient developed a transition from crampy to severe, constant pain, accompanied by fever, hypotension, tachycardia, rigid abdomen (peritonitis), leukocytosis with bandemia, and lactic acidosis.
These findings represent the 'hard signs' of bowel strangulation and ischemia, differentiating it from a simple mechanical obstruction.
3
Determine the definitive management protocol based on the clinical shift.
The presence of peritonitis and hemodynamic instability in the setting of a small bowel obstruction mandates abandoning conservative therapy in favor of immediate surgical exploration.
Strangulated bowel rapidly progresses to necrosis, perforation, and overwhelming sepsis; time-consuming diagnostic imaging or continued medical management increases mortality.

Key Concept

Patients with a small bowel obstruction who develop signs of strangulation or ischemia (e.g., constant severe pain, peritonitis, fever, tachycardia, hemodynamic instability, metabolic acidosis) require immediate exploratory laparotomy rather than continued conservative management or further diagnostic imaging.
Question 756Question →

A 42-year-old woman is evaluated in the post-anesthesia care unit 4 hours after undergoing a total thyroidectomy for a toxic multinodular goiter. The nursing staff urgently requests assistance because the patient is highly agitated, reporting severe neck pressure, and having significant difficulty breathing. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.1°C, heart rate of 118/min, blood pressure of 152/94 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 28/min, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Physical examination reveals audible inspiratory stridor. The anterior neck incision is intact, but the surrounding tissue is markedly swollen, tense, and ecchymotic. Arrange the following management steps in the correct chronological order.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first decompress the wound at the bedside, followed by endotracheal intubation, transporting the patient to the operating room, and finally performing formal wound exploration.
The patient is experiencing an expanding neck hematoma following a thyroidectomy, leading to impending airway obstruction (evidenced by stridor and hypoxia). The first and most critical step is to immediately open the wound (including cutting the sutures and opening the deep cervical fascia) at the bedside to relieve the pressure on the trachea. Once the tension is released, the anatomy is decompressed, allowing for safer endotracheal intubation to secure the airway. After the patient is stabilized and the airway is secure, they should be transported to the operating room for formal surgical exploration, hematoma evacuation, and definitive hemostasis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Open the incision and deep cervical fascia at the bedside.
Rapid decompression of the airway and restoration of venous return.
An expanding neck hematoma causes direct mechanical compression of the trachea. Immediate bedside decompression is the fastest way to relieve this pressure and prevent asphyxiation.
2
Perform endotracheal intubation.
The airway is definitively secured.
Once the external pressure is relieved, the anatomy normalizes enough to safely visualize the vocal cords and place an endotracheal tube, preventing further respiratory compromise.
3
Transport the patient to the operating room.
The patient is safely moved to a sterile, controlled environment.
Bedside decompression is a temporizing measure. Definitive management requires a fully equipped operating room with optimal lighting and surgical instruments.
4
Perform formal wound exploration.
The source of bleeding is identified and ligated.
To prevent recurrence and clear the surgical field of blood clots, the surgical site must be explored under general anesthesia to achieve definitive hemostasis.

Key Concept

Acute Management of Postoperative Expanding Neck Hematoma
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 757Question →

Match each clinical presentation with the most appropriate definitive surgical intervention.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Painless jaundice, a palpable right upper quadrant mass, and cross-sectional imaging demonstrating a resectable tumor in the pancreatic head.
Hemodynamic instability and generalized peritonitis associated with CT findings of a perforated sigmoid colon and gross fecal spillage.
Refractory gastroesophageal reflux disease accompanied by severe heartburn and a large paraesophageal hernia identified on barium swallow.
Sudden onset of a rigid, board-like abdomen with free subdiaphragmatic air seen on upright chest radiography.
Fulminant ulcerative colitis complicated by toxic megacolon that has failed to improve after multiple days of maximal medical therapy.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Pancreatic mass is matched to Whipple procedure; perforated diverticulitis with fecal peritonitis to Hartmann procedure; refractory GERD with paraesophageal hernia to Nissen fundoplication; perforated ulcer to Graham patch repair; and refractory toxic megacolon to total abdominal colectomy.
Each clinical presentation describes a classic indication for a specific surgical procedure. A resectable pancreatic head mass requires a pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure). Hemodynamically unstable perforated diverticulitis with gross peritonitis necessitates a Hartmann procedure because a primary anastomosis is unsafe. Refractory GERD with a paraesophageal hernia is treated with crural repair and Nissen fundoplication. A perforated peptic ulcer is managed with an omental (Graham) patch to seal the leak. Finally, toxic megacolon unresponsive to medical therapy is treated with a total abdominal colectomy and end ileostomy to rapidly remove the diseased colon while avoiding a high-risk pelvic dissection.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each clinical presentation to determine the underlying gastrointestinal pathology.
Identified pancreatic head adenocarcinoma, Hinchey IV sigmoid diverticulitis, paraesophageal hernia, perforated peptic ulcer, and toxic megacolon.
Establishing the correct anatomical and pathological diagnosis is the prerequisite for selecting the appropriate surgical intervention.
2
Select the definitive standard-of-care surgical procedure for each diagnosis.
Matched the specific surgical resections, repairs, or diversions to their respective clinical indications.
Each major gastrointestinal emergency or structural pathology has a specific, guideline-directed operative approach.

Key Concept

Standard surgical procedures for definitive management of major gastrointestinal and abdominal pathologies.
Question 758Question →

An ambulance brings a 68-year-old resident of an assisted living facility to the acute care clinic due to progressive confusion, rigors, and new-onset jaundice over the past day. Vital signs on arrival show a temperature of 39.5°C (103.1°F), a pulse of 118/min, and a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg. Abdominal examination is notable for right upper quadrant guarding and tenderness on palpation. Blood tests demonstrate a leukocytosis of 18,500/mm³ and a total bilirubin of 5.8 mg/dL with a direct fraction of 4.2 mg/dL. Suspecting acute severe ascending cholangitis, arrange the following clinical interventions in the most appropriate chronological order.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is: 1) Initiate aggressive intravenous crystalloid resuscitation and broad-spectrum antibiotics, 2) Obtain a right upper quadrant abdominal ultrasound, 3) Perform an urgent endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), and 4) Schedule an interval laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
The management of severe acute cholangitis follows a strict pathway driven by patient safety. Because the patient is in septic shock (Reynolds' pentad), the immediate priority is aggressive fluid resuscitation and broad-spectrum antibiotics to stabilize hemodynamics and treat the bacteremia. Once stabilized, an abdominal ultrasound is the fastest and safest imaging modality to confirm the suspected diagnosis of an obstructed biliary tree. Following confirmation, the patient requires urgent definitive decompression of the infected bile duct, which is most safely achieved with an ERCP and sphincterotomy. Finally, to prevent future occurrences, the gallbladder (the source of the stones) is removed via an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy after the patient has entirely recovered from the acute illness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize the clinical presentation of severe acute ascending cholangitis.
The patient's presentation of fever, jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, hypotension, and altered mental status (Reynolds' pentad) indicates a life-threatening biliary infection.
Accurate recognition of the severity (septic shock) dictates the immediate priority of the subsequent management steps.
2
Prioritize initial hemodynamic stabilization.
The absolute first step is intravenous fluid resuscitation and the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Patients with severe cholangitis die from septic shock; addressing Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABC) parameters is always the primary medical intervention.
3
Confirm the diagnosis with an appropriate initial imaging modality.
A right upper quadrant ultrasound is performed next.
Ultrasound is the most efficient, non-invasive method to evaluate for biliary ductal dilation and gallstones in an acute setting.
4
Determine the necessary definitive urgent intervention.
ERCP is performed for prompt biliary decompression.
Antibiotics alone cannot resolve an obstructed, pus-filled biliary tree. Urgent decompression is required once the patient is hemodynamically stable enough to undergo the procedure.
5
Plan for long-term prevention.
An interval laparoscopic cholecystectomy is scheduled for a later date.
Operating on a critically ill, septic patient carries extreme risk. Removing the gallbladder definitively prevents future stones but must wait until the patient has fully recovered from the acute illness.

Key Concept

The standard step-wise management of acute ascending cholangitis prioritizes hemodynamic stabilization and antibiotics, followed by non-invasive imaging, urgent ERCP for biliary decompression, and subsequently an interval cholecystectomy.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 759Question →

A 28-year-old man is evaluated on the surgical floor for an elevated temperature. He is currently on his first postoperative day following an open reduction and internal fixation of a closed right femur fracture sustained in a motor vehicle collision. The patient reports expected mild pain at the surgical site but denies shortness of breath, cough, dysuria, or calf pain. His temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, heart rate is 88/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Pulse oximetry shows 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals a clean, dry, and intact surgical dressing with no surrounding erythema or excessive swelling. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Observation and administration of acetaminophen

Answer

Observation and administration of acetaminophen
The correct answer is observation and administration of acetaminophen. Postoperative fever (defined as temperature > 38.0°C or 100.4°F) is exceedingly common within the first 24 to 48 hours following major surgical procedures, such as an open reduction and internal fixation. During this early period, the fever is predominantly mediated by the release of inflammatory cytokines (e.g., interleukin-1, interleukin-6, tumor necrosis factor-alpha) triggered by the surgical tissue trauma itself. If the patient is hemodynamically stable and lacks focal signs of infection (such as a productive cough, dysuria, or marked wound erythema), this early pyrexia is considered a normal, expected physiologic response. Routine diagnostic testing (often referred to as a 'fever pan-culture') and empiric antibiotic therapy are unnecessary and potentially harmful. Management consists of observation, reassurance, and antipyretics to maintain patient comfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the timing of the patient's fever.
The fever is occurring on postoperative day 1 (within 24 hours of surgery).
Timing is the most critical factor in determining the likely etiology of a postoperative fever.
2
Correlate the fever timing with the clinical presentation.
The patient has no focal infectious symptoms (no cough, clear lungs, no dysuria) and a normal physical exam.
Early postoperative fevers without focal signs are almost always due to the physiologic release of inflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha) secondary to tissue trauma.
3
Determine the appropriate management strategy based on the etiology.
Symptomatic management with antipyretics and observation is indicated.
Since this is a normal physiologic response and there is no evidence of an underlying infection, diagnostic testing or antibiotic therapy is not required.

Key Concept

Fever within the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery is typically a physiologic response to tissue trauma mediated by cytokines, and in the absence of focal findings, should be managed with observation and antipyretics.
Question 760Question →

A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motorcycle collision. On presentation, he is lethargic and only opens his eyes to painful stimuli. Vital signs are temperature 36.2°C (97.2°F), blood pressure 78/45 mm Hg, heart rate 138/min, and respiratory rate 24/min. Oxygen saturation is 95% on a non-rebreather mask. The patient undergoes rapid sequence intubation for airway protection. Following intubation, a portable chest radiograph shows clear lung fields without pneumothorax or hemothorax. A pelvic radiograph reveals no fractures. Focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates a large amount of anechoic fluid in the hepatorenal and splenorenal recesses. The patient receives warmed intravenous crystalloid fluids and uncrossmatched type O-negative blood, but his blood pressure remains 80/48 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Exploratory laparotomy

Answer

Exploratory laparotomy
This patient has sustained blunt abdominal trauma, is hemodynamically unstable (hypotensive, tachycardic), and has a positive FAST exam indicating intraperitoneal hemorrhage. According to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols, the most appropriate next step is immediate exploratory laparotomy to identify and stop the source of bleeding. Delaying surgical hemostasis in a patient with refractory hemorrhagic shock leads to the lethal triad of coagulopathy, hypothermia, and acidosis, ultimately resulting in death.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical problem
The patient is in hemorrhagic shock due to blunt trauma, evidenced by severe hypotension and tachycardia despite initial fluid and blood resuscitation.
Vital signs dictate the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) management algorithm.
2
Analyze the diagnostic findings
The positive FAST exam confirms the presence of significant intraperitoneal hemorrhage as the source of the shock.
A source of bleeding must be rapidly identified in an unstable trauma patient.
3
Determine the next best step in management
Immediate surgical intervention is required to control the bleeding.
A hemodynamically unstable patient with a positive FAST exam must go directly to the operating room; other imaging is deferred.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST exam require immediate exploratory laparotomy.
PreviousPage 38 / 68Next
Surgery Practice Questions — USMLE Step 2 CK — Page 38 | Examkin